ATI RN
ANCC Cardiovascular Certification Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is taking Flecainide for arrhythmias. What type of anti- arrhythmic medication is this:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Flecainide is a Class IC antiarrhythmic medication. Class IC antiarrhythmics block sodium channels in the heart, slowing conduction velocity. This helps in treating tachyarrhythmias. Choices A and C are both listed as Class IB, which work by blocking sodium channels but have different effects on action potential duration compared to Flecainide. Choice B, Class II, works by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors and is not the correct class for Flecainide. Therefore, the correct answer is D as Flecainide belongs to Class IC due to its mechanism of action.
Question 2 of 5
The client has had heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. How is this treated?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Give lepirudin. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is a serious condition caused by heparin use. Lepirudin is a direct thrombin inhibitor used to treat this condition by preventing further clot formation. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Clotting factors are not appropriate as they can worsen the condition. B: Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. C: Warfarin is not used in the acute treatment of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, as it takes time to achieve therapeutic anticoagulation.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is instructing the client on the taking of aspirin. What would be part of that instruction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Discard any aspirin that smells like vinegar. This instruction is important as it indicates that the aspirin may have degraded and is no longer effective or safe for use. Taking expired medication can be harmful. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Taking aspirin on an empty stomach can increase the risk of stomach irritation and ulcers. B: Warfarin and aspirin should not be taken together without medical supervision as they both increase the risk of bleeding. D: Aspirin is contraindicated in hemophiliacs as it further increases the risk of bleeding.
Question 4 of 5
The client is taking a statin medication. What common adverse reaction should the nurse warn the client about?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle weakness. Statins are known to cause myopathy, leading to muscle weakness and pain. This adverse reaction can progress to rhabdomyolysis, a serious condition. Constipation (B), diarrhea (C), and dizziness (D) are not commonly associated with statin use. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about the potential risk of muscle weakness and the importance of reporting any symptoms to their healthcare provider promptly.
Question 5 of 5
T 1 O2 sat 99 percent. Which number represents the client’s systolic blood pressure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (120) because the normal systolic blood pressure range is around 90-120 mmHg. A systolic blood pressure of 120 is within the normal range, indicating adequate perfusion to maintain an oxygen saturation level of 99 percent. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not within the normal systolic blood pressure range and would not be expected to maintain a high oxygen saturation level. Option A (16) is too low, option C (60) is also low for a systolic blood pressure, and option D (99) is close but still on the lower end of the normal range.