ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is taking a class I anti-arrhythmic medication. How does this type of medication work?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Class I anti-arrhythmic medications work by blocking sodium channels in the heart, which results in a decrease in the rate of depolarization and conduction velocity. This helps to stabilize the heart's electrical activity and prevent abnormal rhythms. Choice A is incorrect because blocking calcium channels is characteristic of Class IV anti-arrhythmic medications. Choice B is incorrect as increasing conduction through the AV node is not the mechanism of action for Class I drugs. Choice C is incorrect because decreasing the excitability of the SA node is more indicative of Class II anti-arrhythmic medications.
Question 2 of 5
The client is to take IV heparin. What is a contraindication to giving the drug? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uncontrolled bleeding. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that can increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, if a client has uncontrolled bleeding, giving heparin can exacerbate the situation and lead to severe bleeding complications. Deep vein thrombosis (A) is a condition where heparin is actually indicated to prevent clot formation. Thrombocytosis (C) is an elevated platelet count and is not a contraindication to heparin. Thrombocytopenia (D) is a low platelet count, which can increase the risk of bleeding with heparin but is not a contraindication on its own.
Question 3 of 5
The client is being switched from warfarin to Pradaxa. What does the nurse look for as an indication to give the Pradaxa?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Give the Pradaxa 2 days after stopping the warfarin. This is because Pradaxa does not require INR monitoring like warfarin. By waiting 2 days after stopping warfarin, the risk of overlapping anticoagulant effects is minimized, reducing the risk of bleeding. A: When the INR has normalized - This is incorrect because Pradaxa does not require INR monitoring. B: When the warfarin is stopped, the Pradaxa can be given - This is not ideal as immediate switch may lead to overlapping anticoagulant effects. C: When the INR is less than 2, you can give the Pradaxa - INR level is not a consideration for starting Pradaxa.
Question 4 of 5
The client is experiencing a drug-drug interaction with streptokinase and another drug. Which other drug can cause a drug- drug interaction with streptokinase?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Streptokinase is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve blood clots. Step 2: Heparin is an anticoagulant that also prevents blood clot formation. Step 3: Both streptokinase and heparin can increase the risk of bleeding when used together due to their similar mechanism of action. Step 4: This interaction can lead to excessive bleeding and must be carefully monitored. Step 5: Cimetidine, theophylline, and digoxin do not have a known significant drug-drug interaction with streptokinase. Summary: Choice C (Heparin) is the correct answer because it can potentially cause a drug-drug interaction with streptokinase by increasing the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and D do not have a significant interaction with streptokinase.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is educating a client who has just been started on Zetia (exetimibe). What does the nurse say to educate the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Zetia (ezetimibe) should be taken at least 2 hours before or 4 hours after a bile acid sequestrant to avoid interactions that may decrease its absorption. Choice A is incorrect as Zetia can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific restriction on taking Zetia with milk. Choice D is incorrect as Zetia can be taken with a statin drug, but the dosing schedule should be adjusted if taken with a bile acid sequestrant.