ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is taking a class I anti-arrhythmic medication. How does this type of medication work?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for answer D: 1. Class I anti-arrhythmic drugs work by blocking sodium channels in the heart. 2. Blocking sodium channels slows the phase 0 depolarization of cardiac cells. 3. This decreases the conduction velocity and excitability of cardiac tissue. 4. Ultimately, it helps to stabilize the heart's electrical activity and prevent arrhythmias. Summary: A: Blocking calcium channels is typical for Class IV antiarrhythmics, not Class I. B: Increasing conduction through AV node is not the mechanism of Class I antiarrhythmics. C: Decreasing excitability of SA node is not how Class I antiarrhythmics work.
Question 2 of 5
The client is to take IV heparin. What is a contraindication to giving the drug? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B (Uncontrolled bleeding) Rationale: 1. Heparin is an anticoagulant that works by preventing blood clots. 2. Uncontrolled bleeding is a contraindication because heparin can increase the risk of bleeding. 3. Deep vein thrombosis (A) is not a contraindication as heparin is used to treat and prevent DVT. 4. Thrombocytosis (C) is an increased platelet count and not a contraindication for heparin. 5. Thrombocytopenia (D) is a low platelet count, which can increase the risk of bleeding, making it a contraindication as well.
Question 3 of 5
The client is being switched from warfarin to Pradaxa. What does the nurse look for as an indication to give the Pradaxa?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is D. Pradaxa, a direct oral anticoagulant, can be given 2 days after stopping warfarin to prevent overlapping anticoagulation effects. This allows for a smooth transition without increasing the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because A) waiting for the INR to normalize may lead to a delay in starting Pradaxa, B) stopping warfarin alone does not indicate the appropriate timing for starting Pradaxa, and C) waiting for the INR to be less than 2 is not specific to initiating Pradaxa.
Question 4 of 5
The client is experiencing a drug-drug interaction with streptokinase and another drug. Which other drug can cause a drug- drug interaction with streptokinase?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Heparin. Streptokinase is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve blood clots, while Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clot formation. When used together, they can increase the risk of bleeding due to their combined anticoagulant effects. Cimetidine (A), Theophylline (B), and Digoxin (D) do not typically interact with streptokinase in the same way as Heparin. This is because they have different mechanisms of action and do not directly affect the clotting process.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is educating a client who has just been started on Zetia (exetimibe). What does the nurse say to educate the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Zetia interacts with bile acid sequestrants, affecting its absorption. By taking it 2 hours before or 4 hours after a bile acid sequestrant, the absorption of Zetia is maximized. Choice A is incorrect as Zetia can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific interaction with milk. Choice D is incorrect as Zetia can be taken with a statin drug, but the dosing may need to be adjusted based on individual patient factors.