ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is taking a calcium channel blocker for an arrhythmia. What is a contraindication to giving the client this drug?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome. This is because calcium channel blockers can exacerbate the accessory pathway in WPW syndrome, leading to potentially life-threatening arrhythmias. Choices A and B are not contraindications as calcium channel blockers are commonly used to manage hypertension and arrhythmias. Choice D, glaucoma, is not directly related to the use of calcium channel blockers for arrhythmias.
Question 2 of 5
The client is being taught about their warfarin. What does the nurse say about warfarin?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because warfarin antagonizes vitamin K, essential for clotting factor production. This leads to reduced clotting factor synthesis, preventing blood clots. Option B is incorrect as warfarin doesn't act as an antiplatelet drug but affects clotting factors. Option C is incorrect as warfarin doesn't cause fibrinolysis but hinders clot formation. Option D is incorrect as warfarin doesn't directly inactivate clotting factors, but rather interferes with their production.
Question 3 of 5
The client is taking Ticlid and is anticipating surgery. What does the nurse advice the client to do about taking the Ticlid around the time of surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ticlid should be withheld on the day of surgery. Ticlid is an antiplatelet medication that can increase the risk of bleeding during surgery. It is crucial to withhold Ticlid on the day of surgery to minimize the risk of excessive bleeding during the procedure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking Ticlid on the day of surgery or stopping it too far in advance can lead to increased bleeding risks. Stopping Ticlid a month before surgery (C) is unnecessary and can increase the risk of clot formation. Stopping Ticlid 7 days before surgery (D) is also too close to the surgery date and may not provide enough time for the medication to clear the system, potentially leading to increased bleeding risks.
Question 4 of 5
The client has been prescribed gemfibrozil. The nurse explains the function of the drug as what?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: It lowers triglyceride levels. Gemfibrozil is a fibric acid derivative that primarily works by lowering triglyceride levels. It does not directly reduce cholesterol levels (A), destabilize cholesterol plaques (B), or prevent a recurrent MI (C). It is important to understand the specific mechanism of action of gemfibrozil to provide accurate patient education.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is assessing the client’s capillary refill. A normal capillary refill time is what?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (Less than 1 second) because normal capillary refill time is typically less than 1 second. Capillary refill time measures the time it takes for blood to return to the capillaries after pressure is applied and released. This quick refill indicates adequate peripheral circulation. Choices B, C, and D (3 seconds, 5 seconds, and 10 seconds) are incorrect as they indicate delayed capillary refill, which can be a sign of poor circulation or other underlying health issues. It is crucial for nurses to assess capillary refill time accurately to monitor circulation status and detect potential problems early.