ATI RN
Cardiovascular Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is taking a calcium channel blocker for an arrhythmia. Calcium channel blockers are used to treat what type of arrhythmia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Atrial flutter. Calcium channel blockers slow down the conduction of electrical impulses in the heart, which can help stabilize the heart rate in atrial arrhythmias like atrial flutter. Ventricular tachycardia (B) is usually treated with antiarrhythmic drugs or electrical cardioversion. Frequent PVCs (C) are commonly managed by beta-blockers. Sinus bradycardia (D) is a condition of slowed heart rate that is typically not treated with calcium channel blockers. In this case, the mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers aligns with the treatment goal for atrial flutter, making it the correct choice.
Question 2 of 5
The client is on low molecular weight heparin. A priority nursing intervention is what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor for hemorrhage. This is a priority nursing intervention because low molecular weight heparin can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as bruising, petechiae, or blood in stool is crucial to prevent serious complications. A: Monitoring heparin levels is not necessary for low molecular weight heparin as it does not require routine monitoring. B: Monitoring aPTT is not necessary for low molecular weight heparin as it primarily affects unfractionated heparin levels. D: Monitoring blood sugar is unrelated to low molecular weight heparin therapy and is not a priority intervention. In summary, monitoring for hemorrhage is essential to ensure patient safety when on low molecular weight heparin, making it the correct priority nursing intervention.
Question 3 of 5
The client is on an ADP receptor blocker for the prevention of recurrent myocardial infarction. What does the nurse expect when the client develops hemorrhaging and a low platelet count?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is a rare but serious adverse effect associated with ADP receptor blockers, characterized by microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, fever, renal dysfunction, and neurological abnormalities. The development of hemorrhaging and low platelet count in this client suggests TTP, not a typical reaction to ADP receptor blockers (choice A), not necessarily due to concomitant aspirin use (choice B), and not necessarily indicative of taking too much of the medication (choice D). TTP requires immediate medical intervention to prevent serious complications.
Question 4 of 5
The client is experiencing a drug-drug interaction with niacin. Which drug has a drug-drug interaction with niacin?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Statin drugs. Niacin can increase the risk of myopathy when used with statins due to potential additive effects on muscle toxicity. Statins are known to cause muscle-related side effects, and combining them with niacin can further exacerbate this risk. Aspirin (A), Theophylline (C), and Digoxin (D) do not typically have significant drug-drug interactions with niacin. It is important to be cautious when combining niacin with statins to minimize the risk of adverse effects.
Question 5 of 5
The client has been found to have a normal cardiac output. What value represents a normal cardiac output?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (4 l/min) because a normal cardiac output typically ranges from 4 to 8 liters per minute in adults. This value ensures adequate blood circulation to meet the body's needs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they fall outside the normal range and may indicate either insufficient or excessive cardiac output, which can lead to health issues.