The client is taking a calcium channel blocker for an arrhythmia. Calcium channel blockers are used to treat what type of arrhythmia?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Atrial flutter. Calcium channel blockers are used to treat atrial arrhythmias by slowing down the conduction of electrical signals in the heart, specifically in the atria. This helps in controlling the heart rate and rhythm in conditions like atrial flutter. B: Ventricular tachycardia is incorrect because calcium channel blockers primarily affect the atria, not the ventricles where ventricular tachycardia originates. C: Frequent PVCs is incorrect as calcium channel blockers are not typically used to treat premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). D: Sinus bradycardia is incorrect because calcium channel blockers can further slow down the heart rate, potentially worsening sinus bradycardia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor for hemorrhage. This is the priority intervention for a client on low molecular weight heparin due to its anticoagulant effect, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for hemorrhage involves assessing for signs such as bruising, petechiae, hematomas, and abnormal bleeding from any site. This intervention is crucial to detect and address any bleeding complications promptly. Incorrect choices: A: Monitoring the heparin level is not necessary for low molecular weight heparin as it does not require routine monitoring. B: Monitoring the aPTT is not necessary for low molecular weight heparin as it has a more predictable anticoagulant effect than unfractionated heparin. D: Monitoring the blood sugar is not directly related to the use of low molecular weight heparin and is not a priority intervention in this case.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): The client developing hemorrhaging and a low platelet count while on an ADP receptor blocker suggests thrombotic thrombocytopenia. Thrombotic thrombocytopenia is a rare but serious adverse effect characterized by the formation of blood clots and a decrease in platelet count. This condition can lead to both bleeding and clotting issues, explaining the hemorrhaging and low platelet count in the client. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: The low platelet count is not an anticipated reaction to taking an ADP receptor blocker. While some antiplatelet medications can cause decreased platelet count, thrombotic thrombocytopenia is a more specific and severe condition. B: The combination of ADP receptor blockers with aspirin is a common therapy for preventing cardiovascular events but does not directly explain the development of thrombotic thrombocytopenia. D: Simply taking too much of the ADP receptor blocker

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Statin drugs. Niacin can increase the risk of myopathy when used with statins. Statins are known to cause muscle-related side effects, and combining them with niacin can further exacerbate this risk. Aspirin (A), Theophylline (C), and Digoxin (D) do not have significant drug-drug interactions with niacin. Therefore, the correct choice is B based on the known interaction between niacin and statin drugs leading to an increased risk of myopathy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C (4 l/min) as it represents the normal cardiac output value for an average adult at rest. Cardiac output is the volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute. Normal cardiac output ranges from 4-8 liters per minute in adults. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as they fall below or exceed the normal range, indicating either insufficient or excessive blood being pumped by the heart, which can lead to health issues.