ATI RN
Cardiovascular Test Bank Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is receiving a beta agonist. What adverse effect should the nurse look out for?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperglycemia. Beta agonists can stimulate the release of glucose from the liver, leading to elevated blood sugar levels. This adverse effect is important to monitor, especially in patients with diabetes. Choice A (Hypoglycemia) is incorrect as beta agonists typically do not cause low blood sugar. Choices C (Muscle weakness) and D (Paresthesias) are unrelated to beta agonist use and are not commonly associated adverse effects.
Question 2 of 5
The client has hypertension and is being treated with an ACE inhibitor. What vital signs would trigger the release of renin from the kidneys?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A blood pressure of 145/95 would trigger the release of renin from the kidneys when a client is being treated with an ACE inhibitor. This is because this blood pressure reading indicates inadequate blood flow to the kidneys, leading to the activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) to increase blood pressure by vasoconstriction and fluid retention. Choices A, C, and D do not directly relate to the release of renin and the RAAS system in the context of hypertension treatment.
Question 3 of 5
The client is toxic on heparin. What can the nurse do to counteract this?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Give Protamine. Protamine is the antidote for heparin toxicity as it reverses its anticoagulant effects by forming a stable complex with heparin. Vitamin K (A) is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Warfarin (C) is another anticoagulant and would not be effective in counteracting heparin toxicity. Platelets (D) are not used to counteract heparin toxicity but may be indicated if the client is experiencing thrombocytopenia due to heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.
Question 4 of 5
The client is on a platelet inhibitor. Which of the following drugs is a platelet inhibitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Aspirin. Aspirin is a platelet inhibitor because it irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase, reducing the formation of thromboxane A2 which is crucial for platelet aggregation. Pradaxa (B) is a direct thrombin inhibitor, Heparin (C) is an anticoagulant that works by enhancing antithrombin activity, and Warfarin (D) inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Therefore, Aspirin is the only drug among the choices that directly inhibits platelet function.
Question 5 of 5
The client is taking tissue plasminogen activator (TPA). The nurse knows that the mechanism of action of this drug is what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) promotes the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, which breaks down blood clots. Plasmin is an enzyme that dissolves fibrin, the protein meshwork that forms blood clots. This action helps in thrombolysis, which is the breakdown of blood clots. The other options are incorrect because TPA does not prevent platelet activation (Choice A), inactivate clotting factors (Choice B), or block the synthesis of clotting factors (Choice D). TPA specifically targets the breakdown of blood clots by promoting the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin.