ATI RN
Cardiovascular Test Bank Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is receiving a beta agonist. What adverse effect should the nurse look out for?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperglycemia. Beta agonists can stimulate the release of glucose from the liver, leading to increased blood sugar levels. The nurse should monitor for signs of hyperglycemia such as increased thirst, frequent urination, and fatigue. Incorrect answers: A: Hypoglycemia is not a common adverse effect of beta agonists as they typically raise blood sugar levels. C: Muscle weakness is not directly associated with beta agonist use. D: Paresthesias (tingling or numbness) are not typically linked to beta agonist administration.
Question 2 of 5
The client has hypertension and is being treated with an ACE inhibitor. What vital signs would trigger the release of renin from the kidneys?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (BP of 145/95). When the blood pressure is elevated, the kidneys sense a decrease in perfusion pressure and trigger the release of renin to increase blood pressure. A low blood pressure of 70/40 (choice A) would not stimulate renin release as it is too low. The pulse rate (choices C & D) does not directly trigger the release of renin.
Question 3 of 5
The client is toxic on heparin. What can the nurse do to counteract this?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Give Protamine. Protamine is the specific antidote for heparin overdose as it binds to heparin molecules, neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. Vitamin K (A) is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Warfarin (C) is another anticoagulant and should not be given to counteract heparin toxicity. Platelets (D) are used to treat bleeding caused by low platelet count, not heparin toxicity. Therefore, giving Protamine is the appropriate intervention in this scenario.
Question 4 of 5
The client is on a platelet inhibitor. Which of the following drugs is a platelet inhibitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Aspirin is the correct answer as it inhibits platelet aggregation by irreversibly inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzyme. This prevents the formation of thromboxane A2, decreasing platelet activation. Pradaxa is a direct thrombin inhibitor, Heparin is an anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin and factor Xa, and Warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Therefore, only Aspirin directly targets platelet function.
Question 5 of 5
The client is taking tissue plasminogen activator (TPA). The nurse knows that the mechanism of action of this drug is what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) promotes the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin. Plasmin is an enzyme that breaks down fibrin, the protein that forms blood clots. This mechanism helps dissolve blood clots, making it effective in treating conditions like stroke or heart attack caused by blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because TPA does not directly affect platelets, but instead targets the breakdown of clots. Choice B is incorrect as TPA does not work by inactivating clotting factors, but rather enhances clot breakdown. Choice D is incorrect because TPA does not block the synthesis of clotting factors, but rather enhances the breakdown of existing clots.