ATI RN
Cardiovascular Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is on low molecular weight heparin. A priority nursing intervention is what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor for hemorrhage. This is a priority nursing intervention because low molecular weight heparin can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as bruising, petechiae, or blood in stool is crucial to prevent serious complications. A: Monitoring heparin levels is not necessary for low molecular weight heparin as it does not require routine monitoring. B: Monitoring aPTT is not necessary for low molecular weight heparin as it primarily affects unfractionated heparin levels. D: Monitoring blood sugar is unrelated to low molecular weight heparin therapy and is not a priority intervention. In summary, monitoring for hemorrhage is essential to ensure patient safety when on low molecular weight heparin, making it the correct priority nursing intervention.
Question 2 of 5
The client is experiencing a drug-drug interaction with niacin. Which drug has a drug-drug interaction with niacin?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Statin drugs. Niacin can increase the risk of myopathy when used with statins due to potential additive effects on muscle toxicity. Statins are known to cause muscle-related side effects, and combining them with niacin can further exacerbate this risk. Aspirin (A), Theophylline (C), and Digoxin (D) do not typically have significant drug-drug interactions with niacin. It is important to be cautious when combining niacin with statins to minimize the risk of adverse effects.
Question 3 of 5
The client has been found to have a normal cardiac output. What value represents a normal cardiac output?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (4 l/min) because a normal cardiac output typically ranges from 4 to 8 liters per minute in adults. This value ensures adequate blood circulation to meet the body's needs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they fall outside the normal range and may indicate either insufficient or excessive cardiac output, which can lead to health issues.
Question 4 of 5
The client has atrial fibrillation. The treatment of choice to convert to normal sinus rhythm is what?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cardioversion. Cardioversion is the treatment of choice to convert atrial fibrillation to normal sinus rhythm quickly and effectively. It involves delivering an electric shock to the heart to restore its normal rhythm. Digoxin (choice A) is not used for acute conversion but for rate control. Metoprolol (choice C) and Verapamil (choice D) are used for rate control and not for rhythm conversion. Therefore, Cardioversion is the most appropriate choice in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
When developing a teaching plan for a 61-yr-old patient with multiple risk factors for coronary artery disease (CAD), the nurse should focus primarily on the
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: elevated low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level. Elevated LDL is a major risk factor for CAD, especially in older adults. Focusing on lowering LDL levels through lifestyle modifications or medications can help reduce the risk of CAD. Family history (A) is important but not modifiable. Gender (C) is a risk factor, but LDL level is more directly related to CAD risk. Aging (D) increases risk, but addressing specific risk factors like LDL level is crucial in prevention.