ATI RN
Cardiovascular Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is on low molecular weight heparin. A priority nursing intervention is what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor for hemorrhage. This is the priority intervention for a client on low molecular weight heparin due to its anticoagulant effect, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for hemorrhage involves assessing for signs such as bruising, petechiae, hematomas, and abnormal bleeding from any site. This intervention is crucial to detect and address any bleeding complications promptly. Incorrect choices: A: Monitoring the heparin level is not necessary for low molecular weight heparin as it does not require routine monitoring. B: Monitoring the aPTT is not necessary for low molecular weight heparin as it has a more predictable anticoagulant effect than unfractionated heparin. D: Monitoring the blood sugar is not directly related to the use of low molecular weight heparin and is not a priority intervention in this case.
Question 2 of 5
The client is experiencing a drug-drug interaction with niacin. Which drug has a drug-drug interaction with niacin?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Statin drugs. Niacin can increase the risk of myopathy when used with statins. Statins are known to cause muscle-related side effects, and combining them with niacin can further exacerbate this risk. Aspirin (A), Theophylline (C), and Digoxin (D) do not have significant drug-drug interactions with niacin. Therefore, the correct choice is B based on the known interaction between niacin and statin drugs leading to an increased risk of myopathy.
Question 3 of 5
The client has been found to have a normal cardiac output. What value represents a normal cardiac output?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (4 l/min) as it represents the normal cardiac output value for an average adult at rest. Cardiac output is the volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute. Normal cardiac output ranges from 4-8 liters per minute in adults. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as they fall below or exceed the normal range, indicating either insufficient or excessive blood being pumped by the heart, which can lead to health issues.
Question 4 of 5
The client has atrial fibrillation. The treatment of choice to convert to normal sinus rhythm is what?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cardioversion. Cardioversion is the treatment of choice to electrically or pharmacologically convert atrial fibrillation to normal sinus rhythm. Digoxin (A) is used for rate control, not rhythm conversion. Metoprolol (C) is a beta-blocker that helps control heart rate but does not convert rhythm. Verapamil (D) is a calcium channel blocker that can worsen atrial fibrillation and is contraindicated for rhythm conversion.
Question 5 of 5
When developing a teaching plan for a 61-yr-old patient with multiple risk factors for coronary artery disease (CAD), the nurse should focus primarily on the
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: elevated low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level. This is the most critical factor to focus on when developing a teaching plan for a patient with multiple risk factors for CAD. Elevated LDL is a major contributor to the development of atherosclerosis, a key process in CAD. Lowering LDL through lifestyle modifications or medication can significantly reduce the risk of CAD. A: Family history is important but cannot be modified. C: Gender is a non-modifiable risk factor and may play a role but is not as directly impactful as elevated LDL. D: While age is a risk factor for CAD, it is not as modifiable as lowering LDL levels. In summary, focusing on controlling the elevated LDL level through lifestyle changes and medication will have the most significant impact on reducing the patient's risk for CAD.