The client is on IV heparin. You explain that this drug does what?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because heparin works by inactivating clotting factors, specifically by enhancing the activity of antithrombin III which inhibits factors IIa (thrombin) and Xa. This prevents the formation of blood clots. Option A is incorrect because heparin does not act as an antiplatelet drug. Option B is incorrect because heparin does not decrease the synthesis of clotting factors. Option D is incorrect because heparin does not directly promote the lysis of fibrin.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Streptokinase. Streptokinase is a thrombolytic medication that works by breaking down the fibrin network in a blood clot, helping to dissolve the clot. This action is essential in treating conditions like heart attacks and strokes where blood clots obstruct blood flow. Rationale: A: Heparin works by inhibiting the formation of new clots but does not directly digest the fibrin network in an existing clot. C: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that interferes with the clotting process by affecting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, but it does not directly digest fibrin. D: Ticlid is an antiplatelet medication that prevents platelets from clumping together to form clots, but it does not digest the fibrin network in a clot.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Active gallbladder disease. Gemfibrozil can increase the risk of gallstones and exacerbate gallbladder disease. The nurse should inform the client about this contraindication to avoid potential complications. A: History of MI is not a contraindication to taking gemfibrozil. In fact, gemfibrozil may be prescribed to reduce the risk of cardiovascular events in patients with a history of MI. B: History of elevated triglyceride levels is actually an indication for using gemfibrozil, not a contraindication. D: Taking aspirin with gemfibrozil can increase the risk of bleeding but is not a specific contraindication.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (Between the S2 and the S1 beat) because a diastolic murmur occurs during the filling phase of the cardiac cycle, which is between the closure of the semilunar valves (S2) and the closure of the atrioventricular valves (S1). This murmur indicates abnormalities in the heart valves during ventricular relaxation. Choices A and C are incorrect because S1 and S2 beats correspond to systole, not diastole. Choice B is incorrect as it would indicate a continuous murmur throughout the cardiac cycle, which is not characteristic of a diastolic murmur.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Type 1 second degree AV block. This rhythm is characterized by a slightly irregular rhythm and P waves that come in multiples, indicating a delay in the AV node conduction. In Type 1 second degree AV block, there is a progressive prolongation of the PR interval until a P wave is blocked, resulting in a skipped QRS complex. This matches the description given in the question. Choice A (Third degree AV block) is incorrect because in this condition, there is complete blockage of the electrical impulses between the atria and ventricles, resulting in an independent rhythm for both chambers. Choice B (Type 2 second degree AV block) is incorrect because in this condition, there is a consistent PR interval before a blocked P wave without progressive prolongation as seen in the question. Choice D (Junctional escape rhythm) is incorrect as it is characterized by a heart rate originating from the AV junction due to a failure of the SA node,