ATI RN
Med Surg Cardiovascular Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is on dobutamine. Adverse effects 0f Dobutrex (dobutamine) include the following: Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Dobutamine is a beta-1 adrenergic agonist. 2. Beta-1 stimulation increases heart rate (tachycardia). 3. Tachycardia is a common adverse effect of dobutamine due to increased cardiac output. 4. Heart failure (choice A) and bradycardia (choice B) are unlikely as dobutamine increases heart rate. 5. Respiratory distress (choice D) is not a direct adverse effect of dobutamine. Summary: - Choice C (Tachycardia) is correct as dobutamine increases heart rate. - Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not commonly associated with dobutamine use.
Question 2 of 5
The client has paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. What is the drug of choice to treat this condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adenosine. Adenosine is the drug of choice for treating paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) because it works by slowing down conduction through the AV node, effectively terminating the tachycardia. Flecainide (A) and lidocaine (B) are antiarrhythmic drugs used for ventricular arrhythmias, not PSVT. Metoprolol (C) is a beta-blocker that may be used for long-term management of PSVT but is not the first-line acute treatment like adenosine.
Question 3 of 5
The client is being given nitroprusside to lower the blood pressure. The nurse explains to the client that the drug works how?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because nitroprusside works by relaxing vascular smooth muscle, leading to vasodilation and subsequently lowering blood pressure. Nitroprusside does not affect the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (choice A), calcium channels in blood vessels (choice B), or sodium channels in the heart (choice D). Vasodilation is the primary mechanism of action for nitroprusside in reducing blood pressure.
Question 4 of 5
The client is to be given warfarin. What is a contraindication to giving this drug?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Thrombocytosis. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting blood clotting. Thrombocytosis is a condition where there is an excessive number of platelets in the blood, increasing the risk of blood clots. Giving warfarin to a patient with thrombocytosis can further increase the risk of bleeding complications. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Mild thrombocytopenia - This condition involves a low platelet count, which would actually make the patient more susceptible to blood clots, not a contraindication for warfarin. C: Lumbar puncture - This procedure involves obtaining cerebrospinal fluid and is not directly related to the use of warfarin. D: History of eye surgery in the distant past - This is not a contraindication for warfarin unless there were specific complications related to the surgery that would increase the risk of bleeding
Question 5 of 5
The client is taking a glycoprotein IIB/IIIA receptor antagonist for the prevention of stroke. What drug is the client likely taking?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Abciximab. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors like abciximab are used for preventing stroke in high-risk patients. These drugs block platelet aggregation by binding to the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor. Plavix (A) and Ticlid (B) are antiplatelet drugs that work through different mechanisms and are not glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors. Aspirin (C) is also an antiplatelet drug but does not specifically target the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor.