ATI RN
Cardiovascular Physiology Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is on digoxin has severe digoxin toxicity. What is the nursing priority action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Give Digibind as an antidote. Digibind is the specific antidote for digoxin toxicity as it binds to digoxin and removes it from the body. This action helps to rapidly reduce the levels of digoxin in the system, counteracting the toxic effects. Checking a potassium level (A) may be important but not the priority when severe toxicity is present. Changing the dosing schedule (C) or giving a potassium supplement (D) will not address the immediate life-threatening effects of severe digoxin toxicity. Digibind is the most appropriate and urgent action to take in this scenario.
Question 2 of 5
The client is taking a calcium channel blocker for arrhythmias. What class of anti-arrhythmic agent is this?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Class IV. Calcium channel blockers, such as verapamil and diltiazem, are classified as Class IV anti-arrhythmic agents because they primarily act by blocking calcium channels in cardiac cells, leading to decreased conduction through the AV node and slowing of the heart rate. Class IA agents (choice A) work by blocking sodium channels, Class II agents (choice B) are beta-blockers, and Class III agents (choice C) prolong the action potential duration. Therefore, the correct answer is Class IV as calcium channel blockers specifically target calcium channels to treat arrhythmias.
Question 3 of 5
Which food supplement should the nurse be concerned about in a client taking an ACE inhibitor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium chloride. ACE inhibitors can increase potassium levels in the body, so taking a potassium supplement can lead to hyperkalemia. Sodium chloride (A) does not directly interact with ACE inhibitors. Cayenne pepper (C) and ground black pepper (D) are not known to have interactions with ACE inhibitors. Potassium chloride supplementation is concerning due to the potential for hyperkalemia in clients taking ACE inhibitors.
Question 4 of 5
The client is given low molecular weight heparin at home. In teaching the client, the nurse explains that the drug works by doing what?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inactivates clotting factor Xa. Low molecular weight heparin works by binding to antithrombin III, which in turn inactivates factor Xa, leading to inhibition of the coagulation cascade. This helps prevent the formation of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because heparin does not act as an anti-platelet agent. Choice C is incorrect because heparin does not directly inactivate thrombin. Choice D is incorrect because heparin does not directly increase fibrinolysis.
Question 5 of 5
The client is taking a medication that is an ADP receptor blocker for the prevention of ischemic stroke. What might this medication be?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Plavix. Plavix is an ADP receptor blocker that inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of blood clots and stroke. Aspirin is a cyclooxygenase inhibitor, Heparin is an anticoagulant, and Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist, all of which work through different mechanisms and are not ADP receptor blockers. Hence, Plavix is the most suitable option for preventing ischemic stroke in this scenario.