ATI RN
Cardiovascular Test Bank Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is on a Class II anti-arrhythmic agent. What is one of these drugs?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sodium channel blocker. Class II anti-arrhythmic agents primarily target beta blockers. Sodium channel blockers are classified as Class I anti-arrhythmic agents. These drugs block sodium channels in cardiac cells, which helps in regulating the heart's rhythm. Calcium channel blockers and ACE inhibitors do not directly target the heart's electrical activity, making them incorrect choices. Beta blockers are Class II anti-arrhythmic drugs, but since this question is asking for a different class of drug, B is not the correct answer.
Question 2 of 5
The client is toxic on heparin. What can the nurse do to counteract this?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Give Protamine. Protamine is the antidote for heparin toxicity as it reverses its anticoagulant effects by forming a stable complex with heparin. Vitamin K (A) is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Warfarin (C) is another anticoagulant and would not be effective in counteracting heparin toxicity. Platelets (D) are not used to counteract heparin toxicity but may be indicated if the client is experiencing thrombocytopenia due to heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.
Question 3 of 5
The client is on a platelet inhibitor. Which of the following drugs is a platelet inhibitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Aspirin. Aspirin is a platelet inhibitor because it irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase, reducing the formation of thromboxane A2 which is crucial for platelet aggregation. Pradaxa (B) is a direct thrombin inhibitor, Heparin (C) is an anticoagulant that works by enhancing antithrombin activity, and Warfarin (D) inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Therefore, Aspirin is the only drug among the choices that directly inhibits platelet function.
Question 4 of 5
The client is taking tissue plasminogen activator (TPA). The nurse knows that the mechanism of action of this drug is what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) promotes the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, which breaks down blood clots. Plasmin is an enzyme that dissolves fibrin, the protein meshwork that forms blood clots. This action helps in thrombolysis, which is the breakdown of blood clots. The other options are incorrect because TPA does not prevent platelet activation (Choice A), inactivate clotting factors (Choice B), or block the synthesis of clotting factors (Choice D). TPA specifically targets the breakdown of blood clots by promoting the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin.
Question 5 of 5
The client has hypertension. Which drug the client is taking has an effect on blood pressure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dyazide. Dyazide is a combination of two diuretics, hydrochlorothiazide, and triamterene, commonly used to treat hypertension by reducing blood volume and lowering blood pressure. Hydrochlorothiazide works by increasing urination to remove excess fluid and salt from the body, thus reducing blood volume and pressure. Triamterene helps maintain potassium levels. Metformin (B) is used to treat diabetes, not hypertension. Digoxin (C) is used to treat heart conditions. Warfarin (D) is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots, not to lower blood pressure.