The client is on a Class II anti-arrhythmic agent. What is one of these drugs?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sodium channel blocker. Class II anti-arrhythmic agents primarily target beta blockers. These drugs work by blocking sodium channels, which helps in controlling irregular heart rhythms. Calcium channel blockers (choice A) and ACE inhibitors (choice D) do not belong to Class II anti-arrhythmic agents. Beta blockers (choice B) are Class II anti-arrhythmic agents, but the question asks for the specific drug class within Class II, which is sodium channel blockers.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Give Protamine. Protamine is the specific antidote for heparin overdose as it binds to heparin molecules, neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. Vitamin K (A) is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Warfarin (C) is another anticoagulant and should not be given to counteract heparin toxicity. Platelets (D) are used to treat bleeding caused by low platelet count, not heparin toxicity. Therefore, giving Protamine is the appropriate intervention in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Aspirin is the correct answer as it inhibits platelet aggregation by irreversibly inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzyme. This prevents the formation of thromboxane A2, decreasing platelet activation. Pradaxa is a direct thrombin inhibitor, Heparin is an anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin and factor Xa, and Warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Therefore, only Aspirin directly targets platelet function.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because tissue plasminogen activator (TPA) promotes the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin. Plasmin is an enzyme that breaks down fibrin, the protein that forms blood clots. This mechanism helps dissolve blood clots, making it effective in treating conditions like stroke or heart attack caused by blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because TPA does not directly affect platelets, but instead targets the breakdown of clots. Choice B is incorrect as TPA does not work by inactivating clotting factors, but rather enhances clot breakdown. Choice D is incorrect because TPA does not block the synthesis of clotting factors, but rather enhances the breakdown of existing clots.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dyazide. Dyazide is a combination medication of hydrochlorothiazide and triamterene, which are diuretics that help lower blood pressure by reducing fluid retention and decreasing blood volume. Metformin is primarily used for diabetes, Digoxin for heart conditions, and Warfarin for blood clotting. Therefore, only Dyazide directly affects blood pressure by targeting fluid balance.