ATI RN
Med Surg Cardiovascular Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is on a blood thinner and is experiencing tinnitus. Which drug is the client likely taking?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Warfarin. Warfarin is known to cause tinnitus as a side effect due to its anticoagulant properties affecting blood flow in the inner ear. Pradaxa (A) is less likely to cause tinnitus. Aspirin (B) can cause tinnitus but is not a blood thinner. Heparin (C) is not associated with tinnitus. In summary, Warfarin is the likely drug causing tinnitus due to its anticoagulant effects on inner ear blood flow.
Question 2 of 5
The client has a history of atrial fibrillation and is taking quinidine. Which of the following drugs will have a drug-drug interaction with quinidine?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lanoxin. Quinidine can increase the levels of Lanoxin (digoxin) in the bloodstream by inhibiting its clearance, leading to potential toxicity. Lasix (A) does not have a significant drug interaction with quinidine. Inderal (C) may interact with quinidine, but it is less common compared to Lanoxin. Dyazide (D) is a combination of hydrochlorothiazide and triamterene, which does not have a significant interaction with quinidine.
Question 3 of 5
The client has symptomatic sinus bradycardia. Which is the drug of choice to treat this condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Sinus bradycardia is a condition characterized by a slow heart rate. Step 2: Atropine is the drug of choice for symptomatic sinus bradycardia as it blocks the parasympathetic stimulation, increasing heart rate. Step 3: Quinidine, Adenosine, and Procainamide are not appropriate for treating sinus bradycardia. Summary: Atropine increases heart rate by blocking parasympathetic stimulation, making it the ideal choice for symptomatic sinus bradycardia. Quinidine, Adenosine, and Procainamide are not indicated for this condition.
Question 4 of 5
The client is having a routine EKG. What should the nurse do as a priority intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tell the client to remain motionless. This is the priority intervention during an EKG to ensure accurate results. Movement can cause artifacts, leading to inaccurate readings. Choice A is incorrect as pain is not a significant concern during an EKG. Choice C is incorrect as time duration is not the priority. Choice D is incorrect as shaving the chest is not necessary for a routine EKG.
Question 5 of 5
A patient who has had chest pain for several hours is admitted with a diagnosis of rule out acute myocardial infarction (AMI). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to best determine whether the patient has had an AMI?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cardiac-specific troponin. Troponin is a sensitive and specific marker for myocardial injury. It rises within 3-4 hours of an AMI and remains elevated for up to 2 weeks. Monitoring troponin levels helps in confirming the diagnosis of AMI. Myoglobin is less specific and elevates early but lacks specificity for cardiac damage. Homocysteine and C-reactive protein are markers for cardiovascular risk but are not specific for AMI.