ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is on a beta blocker for hypertension. What should the nurse monitor for?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia. Beta blockers slow down the heart rate by blocking the effects of adrenaline. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as it is a common side effect of beta blockers. Tachycardia (B) is unlikely due to the medication's mechanism. Hypertension (C) is already being treated by the beta blocker. Respiratory distress (D) is not a typical side effect of beta blockers.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client on digoxin with a heart rate of 48 bpm. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. A heart rate of 48 bpm is below the normal range, indicating bradycardia, a potential side effect of digoxin toxicity. Holding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is crucial to prevent further harm. Administering the digoxin (B) can worsen the bradycardia. Atropine (C) is not the first-line treatment for digoxin-induced bradycardia. Increasing the dose of digoxin (D) can exacerbate toxicity. Overall, prompt action to address the underlying cause is essential in this situation.
Question 3 of 5
The client on furosemide (Lasix) is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases potassium excretion in the urine, leading to low potassium levels in the body. Hypokalemia can result in muscle weakness, cardiac arrhythmias, and other serious complications. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is the opposite condition of high potassium levels and is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyponatremia (choice C) is a low sodium level, which may be a potential side effect of furosemide but is not the primary electrolyte imbalance to be concerned about. Hypernatremia (choice D) is high sodium levels and is not directly related to furosemide use.
Question 4 of 5
The client is receiving digoxin and has a potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider. Digoxin toxicity is more likely to occur in patients with low potassium levels. With a potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L, the client is at risk for digoxin toxicity. Holding the digoxin and notifying the healthcare provider is the priority action to prevent potential harm to the client. B: Increasing the dose of digoxin would exacerbate the risk of digoxin toxicity in a client with low potassium levels. C: Continuing the current dose of digoxin without addressing the low potassium level could lead to digoxin toxicity. D: Administering potassium supplements alone may not be sufficient to address the potential digoxin toxicity. Holding the digoxin is the priority action.
Question 5 of 5
The client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the spironolactone and notify the healthcare provider. The priority action is to stop the medication and inform the healthcare provider because a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L is above the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L), indicating hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further increase potassium levels. Continuing the medication or administering a potassium supplement would exacerbate the issue. Increasing the dose of spironolactone would be unsafe and could lead to severe complications. Therefore, holding the medication and seeking guidance from the healthcare provider is crucial in managing the client's elevated potassium level.