ATI RN
ATI Med Surg Cardiovascular Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is having a standard electrocardiogram. The nurse knows that the P wave represents what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atrial depolarization. The P wave on an ECG represents the electrical activity associated with atrial depolarization, specifically the contraction of the atria. This is the first wave seen on an ECG and indicates the initiation of the cardiac cycle. Ventricular depolarization, represented by the QRS complex, occurs after the P wave. Ventricular repolarization, represented by the T wave, occurs after ventricular depolarization. Atrial repolarization is not typically seen on a standard ECG as it is masked by the QRS complex.
Question 2 of 5
After the nurse has finished teaching a patient about the use of sublingual nitroglycerin (Nitrostat), which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it demonstrates the patient's understanding of the appropriate action to take if chest pain persists after taking nitroglycerin. This response shows recognition of the need for timely medical intervention if the medication is not effective, aligning with the goal of nitroglycerin use in managing angina. A is incorrect because nausea is a common side effect, but not the key indicator of effective teaching. B is incorrect as it suggests using nitroglycerin only during chest pain, missing the preventive aspect. C is incorrect as it misinterprets the mechanism of action of nitroglycerin, which primarily dilates blood vessels to improve blood flow, not prevent clot formation.
Question 3 of 5
During the administration of the thrombolytic agent to a patient with an acute myocardial infarction, the nurse should stop the drug infusion if the patient experiences
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: a decrease in level of consciousness. This indicates a potential complication such as intracranial hemorrhage, which is a serious side effect of thrombolytic therapy. Stopping the drug infusion is crucial to prevent further harm. Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect: A: Bleeding from the gums is a common side effect of thrombolytic therapy and does not necessarily warrant stopping the drug infusion unless it is severe or uncontrollable. B: An increase in blood pressure may be a normal response to the medication and does not necessarily require stopping the infusion. D: A nonsustained episode of ventricular tachycardia is a common arrhythmia in acute myocardial infarction and may not require stopping the drug infusion unless it progresses to a sustained or unstable rhythm.
Question 4 of 5
A patient who is being admitted to the emergency department with intermittent chest pain gives the following list of daily medications to the nurse. Which medication has the most immediate implications for the patient’s care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: sildenafil (Viagra). Sildenafil is a medication used for erectile dysfunction that can interact dangerously with nitrates, which are often given for chest pain. This interaction can lead to severe hypotension and cardiovascular collapse. Therefore, the immediate implication for the patient's care is to avoid giving nitrates if the patient has taken sildenafil. Incorrect choices: A: Captopril is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension, but it does not have immediate implications for chest pain. C: Furosemide is a diuretic used for managing fluid overload, which is not directly related to the patient's chest pain. D: Warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clot formation, which is not immediately relevant to the patient's presenting chest pain.
Question 5 of 5
After receiving change-of-shift report about the following four patients on the cardiac care unit, which patient should the nurse assess first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient with unstable angina who has just returned after a PCI is at the highest risk for complications such as bleeding or re-occlusion of the coronary artery. Assessing this patient first allows the nurse to address any immediate post-procedure issues and prevent potential complications. Patients with pericarditis (choice A) and variant angina (choice B) are stable and can be assessed after the patient with unstable angina. The patient who had an MI 4 days ago and is anxious about discharge (choice C) can also be assessed after the patient with unstable angina, as anxiety can be addressed once the more acute situation is managed.