ATI RN
ATI Med Surg Cardiovascular Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is having a standard electrocardiogram. The nurse knows that the P wave represents what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atrial depolarization. The P wave on an ECG represents the depolarization of the atria, indicating the contraction of the atria. This is the first electrical activity that occurs in the heart's conduction system. Ventricular depolarization (choice A) is represented by the QRS complex, while ventricular repolarization (choice B) is represented by the T wave. Atrial repolarization (choice D) is typically hidden within the QRS complex, making it difficult to identify on a standard ECG. Therefore, the P wave best represents atrial depolarization due to its timing and shape on the ECG waveform.
Question 2 of 5
After the nurse has finished teaching a patient about the use of sublingual nitroglycerin (Nitrostat), which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it demonstrates the patient's understanding of the appropriate action to take if chest pain persists after taking nitroglycerin. This response shows that the patient comprehends the importance of seeking immediate medical attention if the chest pain is not relieved by the medication. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: A: Choice A is incorrect because nausea is not a common side effect of nitroglycerin. B: Choice B is incorrect as nitroglycerin is used to relieve chest pain during an angina attack, not just when chest pain is present. C: Choice C is incorrect as nitroglycerin works by dilating blood vessels to improve blood flow, not by preventing clot formation. In summary, choice D is correct as it reflects the patient's understanding of the appropriate action to take in case of persistent chest pain after taking nitroglycerin, while the other choices demonstrate misunderstandings about nitroglycerin use.
Question 3 of 5
During the administration of the thrombolytic agent to a patient with an acute myocardial infarction, the nurse should stop the drug infusion if the patient experiences
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a decrease in the level of consciousness during thrombolytic therapy for acute myocardial infarction can indicate a potential intracranial hemorrhage, a serious complication. Stopping the drug infusion is crucial to prevent further bleeding and worsening the patient's condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bleeding from the gums, an increase in blood pressure, or a nonsustained episode of ventricular tachycardia are not immediate indicators of a life-threatening complication requiring immediate cessation of the drug infusion.
Question 4 of 5
A patient who is being admitted to the emergency department with intermittent chest pain gives the following list of daily medications to the nurse. Which medication has the most immediate implications for the patient’s care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: sildenafil (Viagra). Sildenafil is a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor used for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary arterial hypertension. It is contraindicated with nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Given the patient's intermittent chest pain, which may suggest underlying cardiovascular issues, the use of sildenafil raises concerns about potential interactions with nitrate medications that may be needed for chest pain. This interaction can lead to a significant drop in blood pressure and exacerbate the patient's condition. A: Captopril is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension. While important to monitor, it does not have immediate implications based on the patient's current presentation. C: Furosemide is a diuretic used for fluid overload. It is important in heart failure management but does not have immediate implications in this context. D: Warfarin is an anticoagulant used for thromboembolic disorders. While important for long-term management, it does
Question 5 of 5
After receiving change-of-shift report about the following four patients on the cardiac care unit, which patient should the nurse assess first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient with unstable angina who just returned after a PCI is at the highest risk for complications. Assessing this patient first allows the nurse to monitor for any signs of post-procedure complications such as bleeding, clot formation, or reperfusion injury. Immediate assessment and intervention can prevent adverse outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because although pericarditis can be painful, it is not an immediate priority compared to post-PCI complications. Choice B is incorrect as the patient scheduled to receive nifedipine can be assessed after addressing the more urgent situation. Choice C is incorrect because although anxiety is important, it is not a life-threatening concern compared to the post-PCI patient.