The client is given low molecular weight heparin at home. In teaching the client, the nurse explains that the drug works by doing what?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inactivates clotting factor Xa. Low molecular weight heparin works by binding to antithrombin III and inactivating factor Xa, which is essential in the coagulation cascade. This inhibits the formation of new clots. Choice A is incorrect because heparin does not directly act as an anti-platelet agent. Choice C is incorrect as heparin does not directly inactivate thrombin. Choice D is incorrect as heparin does not directly increase fibrinolysis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Facial flushing. Niacin commonly causes facial flushing as an adverse reaction due to prostaglandin release. This is a well-known side effect and is usually harmless. Dizziness (A), urinary retention (B), and constipation (C) are not common adverse reactions associated with niacin use. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about the potential for facial flushing with niacin therapy to manage expectations and ensure compliance.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: The sympathetic nervous system. When the client experiences a sudden increase in heart rate and cardiac contractility, it indicates the activation of the sympathetic nervous system. This system is responsible for the "fight or flight" response, increasing heart rate and contractility to prepare the body for action. The parasympathetic nervous system (choice A) would have the opposite effect of slowing down the heart rate. The AV node (choice B) is a part of the heart's electrical system and is not directly responsible for increasing heart rate. The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus (choice C) help regulate blood pressure, not heart rate or contractility.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because in atrial fibrillation, the chaotic and irregular electrical activity in the atria results in the absence of distinct P waves on the ECG. This is due to the disorganized depolarization of the atria, leading to the absence of a clear, identifiable P wave. Therefore, the nurse can accurately state that the P wave is absent in the ECG of a client with atrial fibrillation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A: It precedes a long PR interval - This statement is not accurate for atrial fibrillation as the irregular electrical activity disrupts the normal conduction pathway, leading to variable PR intervals. B: It falls on the previous T wave - This scenario would indicate an abnormality in the ECG, but it does not specifically relate to atrial fibrillation. D: It is peaked - While peaked P waves can indicate certain conditions like right atrial enlargement, this is not a characteristic finding in atr

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because during an exercise echocardiogram, the client typically exercises on a treadmill to stress the heart. This helps evaluate how the heart functions under physical exertion. After exercising, the client immediately undergoes an echocardiogram to assess the heart's response to stress. This test provides valuable information about heart function during activity. Choice A is incorrect because lying on the back is not part of the standard procedure for an exercise echocardiogram. Choice C is incorrect as lying on the right side is not a common position for this test. Choice D is incorrect because electrocardiographic monitoring is essential during an exercise echocardiogram to assess the heart's electrical activity throughout the test.