ATI RN
Cardiovascular Physiology Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is diabetic and is given a non-cardio-selective beta blocker. What might happen to the blood sugars?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B - The blood sugar drops due to impaired production of glucose from glycogen. Rationale: 1. Non-cardio-selective beta blockers inhibit beta-2 receptors in the liver. 2. Beta-2 receptors stimulate glycogenolysis, converting glycogen to glucose. 3. Inhibition of glycogenolysis leads to impaired production of glucose from glycogen. 4. Consequently, blood sugar levels decrease due to reduced availability of glucose. Summary of Other Choices: A: Incorrect. Non-cardio-selective beta blockers inhibit glycogenolysis, leading to decreased breakdown of glycogen and reduced glucose production, resulting in lower blood sugar levels. C: Incorrect. Non-cardio-selective beta blockers do affect blood sugar by impairing glucose production from glycogen. D: Incorrect. Non-cardio-selective beta blockers do not increase cellular uptake of glucose, but rather decrease glucose production from glycogen.
Question 2 of 5
Which food supplement should the nurse be concerned about in a client taking an ACE inhibitor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium chloride. ACE inhibitors can increase potassium levels in the body, so taking a potassium supplement can lead to hyperkalemia. Sodium chloride (A) does not directly interact with ACE inhibitors. Cayenne pepper (C) and ground black pepper (D) are not known to have interactions with ACE inhibitors. Potassium chloride supplementation is concerning due to the potential for hyperkalemia in clients taking ACE inhibitors.
Question 3 of 5
The client is given low molecular weight heparin at home. In teaching the client, the nurse explains that the drug works by doing what?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inactivates clotting factor Xa. Low molecular weight heparin works by binding to antithrombin III, which in turn inactivates factor Xa, leading to inhibition of the coagulation cascade. This helps prevent the formation of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because heparin does not act as an anti-platelet agent. Choice C is incorrect because heparin does not directly inactivate thrombin. Choice D is incorrect because heparin does not directly increase fibrinolysis.
Question 4 of 5
The client is taking a medication that is an ADP receptor blocker for the prevention of ischemic stroke. What might this medication be?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Plavix. Plavix is an ADP receptor blocker that inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of blood clots and stroke. Aspirin is a cyclooxygenase inhibitor, Heparin is an anticoagulant, and Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist, all of which work through different mechanisms and are not ADP receptor blockers. Hence, Plavix is the most suitable option for preventing ischemic stroke in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
The client is taking niacin for cholesterol reduction. What common adverse reaction should the nurse warn the client about?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Facial flushing. Niacin commonly causes vasodilation, leading to facial flushing. This is a well-known adverse reaction that can be distressing to clients. Dizziness (A), urinary retention (B), and constipation (C) are not typically associated with niacin use. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this side effect to help manage expectations and promote adherence to the treatment plan.