ATI RN
Med Surg Cardiovascular Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is being given nitroprusside to lower the blood pressure. The nurse explains to the client that the drug works how?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because nitroprusside works by relaxing vascular smooth muscle, leading to vasodilation and subsequently lowering blood pressure. Nitroprusside does not affect the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (choice A), calcium channels in blood vessels (choice B), or sodium channels in the heart (choice D). Vasodilation is the primary mechanism of action for nitroprusside in reducing blood pressure.
Question 2 of 5
The client is taking a glycoprotein IIB/IIIA receptor antagonist for the prevention of stroke. What drug is the client likely taking?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Abciximab. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors like abciximab are used for preventing stroke in high-risk patients. These drugs block platelet aggregation by binding to the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor. Plavix (A) and Ticlid (B) are antiplatelet drugs that work through different mechanisms and are not glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors. Aspirin (C) is also an antiplatelet drug but does not specifically target the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor.
Question 3 of 5
The client is taking gemfibrozil. What drug-drug interaction does the nurse tell the client about?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because gemfibrozil can potentiate the hypoglycemic effects of sulfonylurea drugs by displacing them from protein binding sites, leading to increased free drug levels. This interaction can result in dangerously low blood sugar levels. A: Gemfibrozil does not affect digoxin levels. C: Gemfibrozil does not lower theophylline levels. D: Gemfibrozil can be taken with cimetidine without significant drug-drug interactions.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is assessing the client’s aortic valve. Where is the stethoscope placed to best hear the aortic valve?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum. This is the location of the aortic valve. The aortic valve is best heard at the second intercostal space on the right side of the sternum. The aortic valve is located at the level of the second right intercostal space. Placing the stethoscope at this specific location allows for optimal auscultation of the aortic valve. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not correspond to the correct anatomical location of the aortic valve. Placing the stethoscope at those locations would not provide the best assessment of the aortic valve.
Question 5 of 5
The client has an EKG showing a gradually lengthening PR interval and a dropped QRS at the longest PR interval. What rhythm does the client have?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Third degree AV block. In this condition, there is complete dissociation between the atria and ventricles, leading to independent rhythms. The gradually lengthening PR interval followed by a dropped QRS complex is characteristic of third degree AV block. The atria and ventricles are firing independently, resulting in no association between the P waves and QRS complexes. Choices B, C, and D do not match the description provided and do not involve complete dissociation between the atria and ventricles as seen in third degree AV block.