ATI RN
ANCC Cardiovascular Certification Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is being given a cardio-selective beta blocker because of which possible reasons? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dysrhythmias. Cardio-selective beta blockers are commonly prescribed to treat dysrhythmias by slowing down the heart rate and reducing the frequency of irregular heartbeats. This helps in controlling and managing abnormal heart rhythms effectively. Hypotension (A) is not a typical reason to prescribe cardio-selective beta blockers, as these medications can further lower blood pressure, exacerbating hypotension. Hypertension (B) is usually treated with non-selective beta blockers, as they have a broader effect on blood vessels. Cardiac arrest (D) is a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate intervention such as CPR and defibrillation, not beta blockers.
Question 2 of 5
The client is taking an ACE inhibitor. What is a contraindication to taking this drug?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Renal artery stenosis. ACE inhibitors can cause a decrease in renal blood flow, potentially worsening renal function in patients with renal artery stenosis. This is a contraindication because it can lead to further renal damage and potentially acute renal failure. Hypertension (Choice A) is actually an indication for ACE inhibitors as they help lower blood pressure. Bronchospasm (Choice B) is not a contraindication for ACE inhibitors. Heart failure (Choice D) is also not a contraindication, as ACE inhibitors are commonly used to treat heart failure by reducing the workload on the heart.
Question 3 of 5
The client has had heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. How is this treated?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D - Give lepirudin Rationale: 1. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a condition where heparin causes a decrease in platelet count. 2. Lepirudin is a direct thrombin inhibitor used to treat HIT by preventing thrombin formation. 3. Clotting factors (A) are not indicated as HIT involves excessive clotting, not clotting factor deficiency. 4. Vitamin K (B) and warfarin (C) are used to treat other conditions like Vitamin K deficiency and as an oral anticoagulant, not HIT.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is instructing the client on the taking of aspirin. What would be part of that instruction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Option C is correct because aspirin should not smell like vinegar, as it indicates degradation. Degraded aspirin may be less effective or harmful. Taking aspirin on an empty stomach (A) can cause irritation, and combining it with warfarin (B) increases the risk of bleeding. Hemophiliacs (D) should avoid aspirin due to its blood-thinning properties.
Question 5 of 5
The client is taking a statin medication. What common adverse reaction should the nurse warn the client about?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle weakness. Statin medications are known to cause muscle-related side effects, including muscle weakness or pain, due to muscle inflammation or damage. This condition, known as myopathy, can progress to a serious condition called rhabdomyolysis. It is crucial for the nurse to warn the client about this adverse reaction to ensure prompt recognition and management. Summary of other choices: B: Constipation - Not a common adverse reaction of statin medications. C: Diarrhea - Not a common adverse reaction of statin medications. D: Dizziness - Dizziness is not a common adverse reaction of statin medications.