ATI RN
Cardiovascular Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client is being fitted for a Holter Monitor. What does the nurse tell the client in preparation for the test?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the client should record the time of any palpable events, such as palpitations, during the Holter Monitor test to provide valuable information to healthcare providers. This step is crucial for correlating symptoms with the recorded heart activity. Choice A is incorrect because clients are encouraged to continue their normal activities during the test. Choice B is incorrect as clients can bathe while wearing the monitor. Choice C is incorrect as the Holter Monitor test typically lasts for 24-48 hours, not just 30 minutes.
Question 2 of 5
When caring for a patient who is recovering from a sudden cardiac death (SCD) event and has no evidence of an acute myocardial infarction (AMI), the nurse will anticipate teaching the patient that
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Sudden cardiac death (SCD) indicates a serious underlying heart condition. Step 2: Absence of acute myocardial infarction (AMI) suggests other causes need investigation. Step 3: Additional diagnostic testing can identify underlying causes to prevent future events. Step 4: Teaching the patient about the need for further testing is crucial for proper management. Summary: Option B is correct as it aligns with the need for comprehensive evaluation post-SCD. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the necessity of additional testing for proper management.
Question 3 of 5
When caring for a patient with acute coronary syndrome who has returned to the coronary care unit after having angioplasty with stent placement, the nurse obtains the following assessment data. Which data indicate the need for immediate action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Severe chest pain in a patient with acute coronary syndrome post-angioplasty indicates a potential complication like stent thrombosis or re-occlusion. Immediate action is needed to assess and manage. A: Heart rate 102 bpm may be expected post-procedure. B: Pedal pulses 1+ bilaterally may indicate decreased perfusion but not an immediate threat. D: Blood pressure 103/54 mm Hg may be low but not an immediate concern unless symptomatic.
Question 4 of 5
A client complains of crushing chest pain that radiates to his left arm. He should be presented with the following treatment:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Aspirin, oxygen, nitroglycerin, and morphine. This combination is recommended for a client with suspected acute coronary syndrome. Aspirin helps reduce blood clot formation, oxygen aids in oxygenation, nitroglycerin dilates blood vessels to improve blood flow, and morphine helps alleviate pain and reduce anxiety. Choice B is incorrect because codeine is not recommended due to potential respiratory depression. Choice C is incorrect because meperidine is not the preferred analgesic in this situation, and thrombolytics are not indicated unless there is confirmed ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction. Choice D is incorrect because nitroprusside is not typically used in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
A client comes to the clinic and states he has a history of hypertension. Which type of medication might the nurse expect the client to be taking to control his blood pressure?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Hypertension is high blood pressure. Step 2: ACE inhibitors are commonly prescribed to control blood pressure. Step 3: ACE inhibitors work by relaxing blood vessels, reducing blood pressure. Step 4: Antilipemics lower cholesterol, not blood pressure. Step 5: Antibiotics treat infections, not hypertension. Step 6: Antidiabetics manage blood sugar levels, not blood pressure. Summary: ACE inhibitors are the correct choice as they specifically target blood pressure regulation, while the other options do not address hypertension.