ATI RN
Population Specific Care Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client in whom schizophrenia has been diagnosed usually is medicated with an ____ drug.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Antipsychotic. Antipsychotic drugs are specifically designed to treat symptoms associated with schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions. These drugs help regulate dopamine levels in the brain, which are often imbalanced in individuals with schizophrenia. Antianxiety drugs (A) are not typically used to treat schizophrenia as they target different symptoms. Antidepressants (C) may be used in conjunction with antipsychotics, but they are not the primary treatment for schizophrenia. Antihypertensive drugs (D) are used to treat high blood pressure and are not indicated for schizophrenia.
Question 2 of 5
Which patient is at greatest risk for physical abuse by a family member?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the 79-year-old with chronic depression who lives with a grandchild is vulnerable due to age, health condition, and dependency on the grandchild. Older adults with mental health issues are at a higher risk of abuse, especially when living with family members. The other choices are less likely to be at greatest risk for physical abuse. A, B, and C do not have the same level of vulnerability due to age, health condition, or dependency as the 79-year-old with chronic depression living with a grandchild.
Question 3 of 5
A woman who is a victim of severe emotional violence tells the nurse that her husband abuses her most often when he is intoxicated, just as his father had beaten him and his mother. The woman is aware of the location of a safe house and has considered leaving home with her two children, but she cites being brought up to believe 'you keep quiet and stay together, no matter what happens.' She states the husband is always apologetic and remorseful after an incident. The nurse responds, 'You cannot live like this; you have to defend yourself and your children.' Which statement most accurately describes the nurse's response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the nurse's response is not helpful. Here's a step-by-step rationale: 1. The nurse's response is human because she empathizes with the woman's situation. 2. However, the response is unprofessional as it is too directive and lacks a proper assessment or exploration of the woman's feelings and options. 3. Telling the woman to defend herself may put her at further risk and does not address the underlying issues of abuse and trauma. 4. The response fails to consider the complexities of the woman's situation, such as her cultural beliefs and the cycle of violence she is caught in. 5. Instead, a professional response would involve a more holistic approach, including safety planning, providing resources, and offering support without judgment or pressure.
Question 4 of 5
A client who received chlorpromazine (Thorazine) for 15 years to treat schizophrenia developed tardive dyskinesia as evidenced by tongue thrusting and chewing motions. The physician discontinued the chlorpromazine and prescribed Seroquel (quetiapine). As a result of this change, the nurse should carefully monitor for:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Improvement in tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, such as chlorpromazine. Quetiapine (Seroquel) is a second-generation antipsychotic with a lower risk of causing tardive dyskinesia. By discontinuing chlorpromazine and switching to quetiapine, the client is less likely to experience worsening of tardive dyskinesia symptoms. Monitoring for improvement in tardive dyskinesia is essential in this situation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A: Development of pseudoparkinsonism is less likely with quetiapine compared to first-generation antipsychotics like chlorpromazine. B: Dystonic reactions are acute side effects and are not typically associated with switching to quetiapine. D: Anticholinergic symptoms are not directly related to tardive dyskinesia
Question 5 of 5
A catatonic patient admitted in a stuporous condition begins to demonstrate increased motor activity. During his assessment, the psychiatrist raises the patient's arm above his head and releases it. The patient maintains the position his arm was placed in, immobile in that position for 15 minutes, moving only when the nurse gently lowers his arm. What symptom is demonstrated by this assessment technique?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Waxy flexibility. This symptom is demonstrated by the patient's ability to maintain the position his arm was placed in, immobile, for an extended period of time. This is characteristic of catatonia, where individuals exhibit increased motor activity and abnormal posturing. Waxy flexibility refers to the tendency of catatonic patients to maintain positions that they are placed in by others, almost as if their limbs are made of wax and can be molded into different positions. Explanation for other choices: A: Echopraxia involves mimicking the movements of others, which is not demonstrated in this scenario. C: Depersonalization refers to feeling detached from oneself, which is not evident in the patient's behavior during the assessment. D: Thought withdrawal is a symptom of schizophrenia where thoughts are believed to be removed from one's mind by an external force, which is not relevant to the patient's motor behavior in this case.