ATI RN
ANCC Cardiovascular Certification Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client has paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. What are some causes of this? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stimulants. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia can be caused by stimulants like caffeine, nicotine, or certain medications that increase heart rate. Stress (choice A) can trigger palpitations but is not a direct cause of PSVT. Hypotension (choice B) and hypertension (choice D) are related to blood pressure and not typically direct causes of PSVT. In summary, stimulants directly increase heart rate and can trigger PSVT, making them the correct choice.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse suspects that the patient with stable angina is experiencing a side effect of the prescribed drug metoprolol (Lopressor) if the
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a blood pressure of 90/54 mm Hg indicates hypotension, a common side effect of metoprolol. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can cause decreased heart rate and blood pressure. This can lead to symptoms like dizziness, weakness, and fainting. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because restlessness, agitation, feeling anxious, and normal sinus rhythm are not typical side effects of metoprolol.
Question 3 of 5
A few days after experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI) and successful percutaneous coronary intervention, the patient states, “It was just a little chest pain. As soon as I get out of here, I’m going for my vacation as planned.” Which reply would be most appropriate for the nurse to make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer, C, is appropriate because it addresses the patient's unrealistic expectations after a heart attack. It acknowledges the seriousness of the situation and gently suggests that plans may need to be adjusted for health reasons. Choice A doesn't directly address the patient's future plans. Choice B focuses on vacation plans rather than the patient's health. Choice D is incorrect as it doesn't address the patient's immediate plans and may not be necessary to state a specific recovery timeline at this point. It's important to prioritize the patient's understanding and acceptance of their condition.
Question 4 of 5
A patient admitted to the coronary care unit (CCU) with an ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) is restless and anxious. The blood pressure is 86/40 mm Hg, and heart rate is 132 beats/min. Based on this information, which nursing diagnosis is a priority for the patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased cardiac output related to cardiogenic shock. In this case, the patient's low blood pressure and high heart rate indicate poor cardiac output. Cardiogenic shock is a life-threatening condition where the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the body's needs. This is a priority nursing diagnosis as it requires immediate intervention to stabilize the patient's hemodynamics and prevent further deterioration. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while they are valid concerns for the patient, they are not as immediately life-threatening as cardiogenic shock. Acute pain, anxiety, and stress overload can all be addressed once the patient's hemodynamic stability is ensured. However, without addressing the decreased cardiac output and cardiogenic shock first, the patient's condition could rapidly worsen and lead to serious consequences.
Question 5 of 5
Which lifestyle changes should a client diagnosed with coronary artery disease consider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (All of the Above). Smoking cessation reduces cardiovascular risks. Regular exercise improves heart health. Weight reduction can lower blood pressure and cholesterol levels. Each lifestyle change targets a specific risk factor for coronary artery disease, making all the choices essential for managing the condition effectively. Therefore, selecting all the options is the most comprehensive approach to address the client's coronary artery disease.