ATI RN
Pharmacology of Cardiovascular Drugs Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client has hypertension and is being treated with an ACE inhibitor. What vital signs would trigger the release of renin from the kidneys?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is option A) BP of 70/40. In this scenario, a low blood pressure (hypotension) triggers the release of renin from the kidneys. Renin is released in response to low blood pressure to kickstart the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) cascade, which ultimately leads to vasoconstriction and an increase in blood pressure. Option B) BP of 145/95 is within the normal range for hypertension management with an ACE inhibitor, so it would not trigger the release of renin. Option C) Pulse of 100 and option D) Pulse of 50 are related to heart rate and not directly involved in the release of renin in response to blood pressure changes. From an educational perspective, understanding the physiological mechanisms behind drug actions is crucial in pharmacology. Knowing how medications interact with the body, including the RAAS system in this case, helps healthcare professionals make informed decisions about drug therapy and patient care. This question highlights the importance of monitoring vital signs and understanding their implications in managing cardiovascular conditions.
Question 2 of 5
A 62-year-old man with congestive heart failure and hypertension on digoxin takes an extra few pills because he is angry about his daughter being pregnant out of wedlock. He is found unconscious and brought to the emergency department for evaluation. If electrocardiogram is performed, which of the following would be most likely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the most likely finding on the electrocardiogram for the 62-year-old man who took extra digoxin pills due to emotional distress would be ventricular tachycardia (Option B). Digoxin toxicity can lead to various cardiac arrhythmias, with ventricular tachycardia being a common manifestation. Acute myocardial infarction (Option A) is less likely in this case because the patient's symptoms are more suggestive of a toxic reaction to digoxin rather than a sudden blockage of a coronary artery. Pulmonary embolism (Option C) and ventricular septal defect (Option D) are also less likely as the primary cause of the presentation. Educationally, this case highlights the importance of understanding the potential arrhythmogenic effects of digoxin overdose and the need for close monitoring of patients on this medication, especially in the setting of emotional distress which may lead to non-adherence or overdose. It also underscores the significance of considering medication-related causes in patients presenting with acute cardiovascular symptoms.
Question 3 of 5
A 62-year-old man with a herniated lumbar disc at L4 is undergoing spinal surgery to remove the injured disc. During the procedure, propofol is administered intravenously. Which of the following statements about this agent is true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Reduces intracranial pressure. Propofol is a sedative-hypnotic agent commonly used for induction and maintenance of anesthesia due to its rapid onset and short duration of action. It is known for its ability to reduce intracranial pressure, making it a valuable choice for patients undergoing neurosurgical procedures like the removal of a herniated lumbar disc. Option A) Increases blood pressure is incorrect because propofol typically causes a decrease in blood pressure due to its vasodilatory effects. Option B) Myocardial depression is incorrect as propofol has minimal negative effects on the cardiovascular system and does not typically cause myocardial depression. Option D) Significant depression of somatosensory-evoked potentials is incorrect as propofol is not known to have a significant impact on sensory-evoked potentials. Educationally, understanding the pharmacological effects of propofol is crucial for healthcare providers involved in anesthesia and sedation management. Knowing its specific actions, such as reducing intracranial pressure, can help in making informed decisions about drug selection based on the patient's condition and the surgical procedure being performed.
Question 4 of 5
which is false on Simvastatin, an HMG-CoA (3-hydroxy-3-methyl-glutaryl-CoA) reductase inhibitor:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this case, the correct answer is C) Acts locally on HMG-CoA reductase in the intestine. Simvastatin is a systemic HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor, meaning it acts on the enzyme in the liver, not locally in the intestine. Option A is incorrect because Simvastatin does lower LDL cholesterol levels by inhibiting the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase, a key enzyme in the liver involved in cholesterol synthesis. Option B is incorrect because Simvastatin is indeed useful in treating heterozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia, a genetic condition characterized by high cholesterol levels. Option D is incorrect as Simvastatin is associated with myositis/myopathy, which are muscle-related side effects, particularly at higher doses. From an educational perspective, understanding the mechanism of action and side effects of cardiovascular drugs like Simvastatin is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions when prescribing medications. It is important to differentiate between the various pharmacological properties of drugs to ensure safe and effective patient care. This question highlights the significance of accurate drug information in clinical practice and the importance of understanding drug actions at a physiological level.
Question 5 of 5
A 70-year-old woman has recurrent, symptomatic ventricular tachycardia following an acute myocardial infarction in spite of DC conversion and lidocaine. The following may be effective:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Amiodarone. Amiodarone is a potent antiarrhythmic drug that is effective in treating ventricular tachycardia, especially when other medications like lidocaine have failed. Its mechanism of action involves blocking multiple ion channels in the heart, which helps stabilize the heart's electrical activity and prevent arrhythmias. Option B) Atropine is unlikely to be effective in treating ventricular tachycardia as it is more commonly used for treating bradycardia by increasing heart rate. Option C) Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that is effective in treating certain types of supraventricular tachycardias but is contraindicated in ventricular tachycardia as it can worsen the condition. Option D) Adenosine is used for treating supraventricular tachycardias like paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) but is not effective for ventricular tachycardia. Educationally, understanding the mechanisms of action of different antiarrhythmic drugs is crucial in selecting the appropriate medication for specific types of arrhythmias. In this case, recognizing the ineffectiveness of lidocaine and the potential benefit of using amiodarone in refractory ventricular tachycardia post-myocardial infarction is essential for optimal patient care.