ATI RN
Med Surg Cardiovascular Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client has an EKG showing a gradually lengthening PR interval and a dropped QRS at the longest PR interval. What rhythm does the client have?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Third degree AV block. In this condition, there is complete dissociation between the atria and ventricles, leading to a gradual lengthening of the PR interval and eventual dropped QRS complex. This indicates that the atria and ventricles are beating independently. Type 2 second degree AV block (B) presents with intermittent dropped QRS complexes without PR interval prolongation. Type 1 second degree AV block (C) displays a progressive prolongation of the PR interval until a dropped QRS complex occurs. Junctional escape rhythm (D) would not be consistent with the EKG findings of a gradually lengthening PR interval.
Question 2 of 5
A patient with ST-segment elevation in three contiguous electrocardiographic leads is admitted to the emergency department and diagnosed as having an ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction. Which question should the nurse ask to determine whether the patient is a candidate for thrombolytic therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “What time did your chest pain begin?” This question is crucial for determining if the patient is a candidate for thrombolytic therapy as the time of symptom onset is a key factor in deciding the eligibility for this treatment. Thrombolytic therapy is most effective when administered within a specific timeframe from the onset of symptoms, typically within the first few hours of symptom onset. Therefore, knowing the exact time when the chest pain started will help healthcare providers assess if the patient falls within the window of opportunity for thrombolytic therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the time-sensitive nature of thrombolytic therapy eligibility. Allergies and daily aspirin intake are important considerations in healthcare, but they are not immediate factors in determining thrombolytic therapy candidacy. The pain rating on a scale of 0 to 10 is subjective and does not provide specific information regarding the urgency of thrombolytic therapy
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient who was admitted to the coronary care unit following an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) and percutaneous coronary intervention the previous day. Teaching for this patient would include
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: when cardiac rehabilitation will begin. This is important teaching for a patient following an AMI and PCI as cardiac rehabilitation plays a crucial role in improving recovery and reducing the risk of future cardiac events. It helps in improving physical strength, managing stress, and promoting overall heart health. By educating the patient about the timing and benefits of cardiac rehabilitation, the nurse is empowering the patient to actively participate in their recovery process. Incorrect choices: B: The typical emotional responses to AMI - While emotional support is important, teaching about emotional responses may not be as crucial as focusing on physical recovery through cardiac rehabilitation. C: Information regarding discharge medications - Important, but not as immediate as cardiac rehabilitation for post-AMI recovery. D: The pathophysiology of coronary artery disease - While education is important, understanding the pathophysiology may not be as pressing as knowing when to start cardiac rehabilitation for immediate recovery.
Question 4 of 5
A patient had a non–ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) 3 days ago. Which nursing intervention included in the plan of care is appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reinforcement of teaching about the purpose of prescribed medications. This task is appropriate for delegation to an LPN/LVN because it involves reinforcing previously taught information to the patient, which does not require advanced assessment or critical thinking skills. LPN/LVNs are typically trained to provide education and reinforcement of information to patients under the supervision of an RN. Choice A is incorrect because evaluating the patient's response to walking in the hallway requires ongoing assessment and monitoring, which should be done by an RN. Choice B is incorrect as completing a referral form involves making decisions about follow-up care, which is beyond the scope of an LPN/LVN. Choice C is incorrect because educating the patient about the pathophysiology of heart disease requires a comprehensive understanding of the disease process and is best done by an RN or healthcare provider with advanced knowledge.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse administers heparin to a client with deep vein thrombophlebitis. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of heparin?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time). PTT measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy by assessing the clotting time. Monitoring PTT helps ensure that the client's blood is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. HCT (Choice B) measures the percentage of red blood cells in the blood and is not directly related to heparin effectiveness. CBC (Choice C) is a complete blood count that includes various parameters, but it does not specifically indicate heparin effectiveness. PT (Choice D) is the Prothrombin Time, which is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin.