ATI RN
ATI Med Surg Cardiovascular Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client has a ventricular rate of 40 and P waves that are normal and unconnected to the QRS complex on a standard EKG. What is this called?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Type 2 second degree AV block. This is because in this type of AV block, there is a consistent pattern of dropped QRS complexes due to intermittent failure of AV conduction. The P waves are normal but are not followed by QRS complexes, leading to a slow ventricular rate. In contrast, in normal sinus rhythm (choice A), there is a 1:1 relationship between P waves and QRS complexes. Type 1 second degree AV block (choice B) presents with progressively lengthening PR intervals until a QRS complex is dropped, not a consistent pattern like in Type 2. Third-degree AV block (choice D) is characterized by complete dissociation between atrial and ventricular activity, resulting in an independent ventricular rate typically faster than 40.
Question 2 of 5
During the administration of the thrombolytic agent to a patient with an acute myocardial infarction, the nurse should stop the drug infusion if the patient experiences
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a decrease in the level of consciousness during thrombolytic therapy for acute myocardial infarction can indicate a potential intracranial hemorrhage, a serious complication. Stopping the drug infusion is crucial to prevent further bleeding and worsening the patient's condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bleeding from the gums, an increase in blood pressure, or a nonsustained episode of ventricular tachycardia are not immediate indicators of a life-threatening complication requiring immediate cessation of the drug infusion.
Question 3 of 5
A patient who is being admitted to the emergency department with intermittent chest pain gives the following list of daily medications to the nurse. Which medication has the most immediate implications for the patient’s care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: sildenafil (Viagra). Sildenafil is a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor used for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary arterial hypertension. It is contraindicated with nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Given the patient's intermittent chest pain, which may suggest underlying cardiovascular issues, the use of sildenafil raises concerns about potential interactions with nitrate medications that may be needed for chest pain. This interaction can lead to a significant drop in blood pressure and exacerbate the patient's condition. A: Captopril is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension. While important to monitor, it does not have immediate implications based on the patient's current presentation. C: Furosemide is a diuretic used for fluid overload. It is important in heart failure management but does not have immediate implications in this context. D: Warfarin is an anticoagulant used for thromboembolic disorders. While important for long-term management, it does
Question 4 of 5
After receiving change-of-shift report about the following four patients on the cardiac care unit, which patient should the nurse assess first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient with unstable angina who just returned after a PCI is at the highest risk for complications. Assessing this patient first allows the nurse to monitor for any signs of post-procedure complications such as bleeding, clot formation, or reperfusion injury. Immediate assessment and intervention can prevent adverse outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because although pericarditis can be painful, it is not an immediate priority compared to post-PCI complications. Choice B is incorrect as the patient scheduled to receive nifedipine can be assessed after addressing the more urgent situation. Choice C is incorrect because although anxiety is important, it is not a life-threatening concern compared to the post-PCI patient.
Question 5 of 5
A client is in the first postoperative day after left femoropopliteal revascularization. Which position would be most appropriate for this client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: In high Fowler's position. This position promotes optimal circulation and respiratory function post-femoropopliteal revascularization. Elevating the head and upper body reduces venous return and decreases the risk of deep vein thrombosis. Choices A, C, and D do not provide the same benefits and may impede circulation or respiratory function.