ATI RN
ATI Med Surg Cardiovascular Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client has a ventricular rate of 40 and P waves that are normal and unconnected to the QRS complex on a standard EKG. What is this called?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Type 2 second degree AV block. In this type of AV block, there is a consistent pattern of dropped QRS complexes due to intermittent failure of AV conduction. The ventricular rate of 40 indicates a slow conduction of impulses from the atria to the ventricles. The presence of normal and unconnected P waves suggests that some P waves are conducted to the ventricles (resulting in QRS complexes) while others are blocked. This pattern is characteristic of Type 2 second degree AV block. Summary: A: Normal sinus rhythm - Incorrect, as the EKG findings do not show a normal sinus rhythm. B: Type 1 second degree AV block - Incorrect, as this type is characterized by a progressively prolonged PR interval leading to a dropped QRS complex, which is not seen in this case. D: Third degree AV block - Incorrect, as in third degree AV block, there is complete dissociation between the atria and
Question 2 of 5
During the administration of the thrombolytic agent to a patient with an acute myocardial infarction, the nurse should stop the drug infusion if the patient experiences
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: a decrease in level of consciousness. This indicates a potential complication such as intracranial hemorrhage, which is a serious side effect of thrombolytic therapy. Stopping the drug infusion is crucial to prevent further harm. Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect: A: Bleeding from the gums is a common side effect of thrombolytic therapy and does not necessarily warrant stopping the drug infusion unless it is severe or uncontrollable. B: An increase in blood pressure may be a normal response to the medication and does not necessarily require stopping the infusion. D: A nonsustained episode of ventricular tachycardia is a common arrhythmia in acute myocardial infarction and may not require stopping the drug infusion unless it progresses to a sustained or unstable rhythm.
Question 3 of 5
A patient who is being admitted to the emergency department with intermittent chest pain gives the following list of daily medications to the nurse. Which medication has the most immediate implications for the patient’s care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: sildenafil (Viagra). Sildenafil is a medication used for erectile dysfunction that can interact dangerously with nitrates, which are often given for chest pain. This interaction can lead to severe hypotension and cardiovascular collapse. Therefore, the immediate implication for the patient's care is to avoid giving nitrates if the patient has taken sildenafil. Incorrect choices: A: Captopril is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension, but it does not have immediate implications for chest pain. C: Furosemide is a diuretic used for managing fluid overload, which is not directly related to the patient's chest pain. D: Warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clot formation, which is not immediately relevant to the patient's presenting chest pain.
Question 4 of 5
After receiving change-of-shift report about the following four patients on the cardiac care unit, which patient should the nurse assess first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient with unstable angina who has just returned after a PCI is at the highest risk for complications such as bleeding or re-occlusion of the coronary artery. Assessing this patient first allows the nurse to address any immediate post-procedure issues and prevent potential complications. Patients with pericarditis (choice A) and variant angina (choice B) are stable and can be assessed after the patient with unstable angina. The patient who had an MI 4 days ago and is anxious about discharge (choice C) can also be assessed after the patient with unstable angina, as anxiety can be addressed once the more acute situation is managed.
Question 5 of 5
A client is in the first postoperative day after left femoropopliteal revascularization. Which position would be most appropriate for this client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: In high Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung ventilation, reduces the risk of aspiration, and promotes circulation. It also minimizes the risk of venous stasis and thrombus formation in the lower extremities postoperatively. Choices A, C, and D do not offer the same benefits and may even hinder circulation or increase the risk of complications in the postoperative period.