ATI RN
Med Surg Cardiovascular Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client has a history of atrial fibrillation and is taking quinidine. Which of the following drugs will have a drug-drug interaction with quinidine?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lanoxin. Quinidine can increase the levels of Lanoxin (digoxin) in the bloodstream by inhibiting its clearance, leading to potential toxicity. Lasix (A) does not have a significant drug interaction with quinidine. Inderal (C) may interact with quinidine, but it is less common compared to Lanoxin. Dyazide (D) is a combination of hydrochlorothiazide and triamterene, which does not have a significant interaction with quinidine.
Question 2 of 5
The client is having a routine EKG. What should the nurse do as a priority intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tell the client to remain motionless. This is the priority intervention during an EKG to ensure accurate results. Movement can cause artifacts, leading to inaccurate readings. Choice A is incorrect as pain is not a significant concern during an EKG. Choice C is incorrect as time duration is not the priority. Choice D is incorrect as shaving the chest is not necessary for a routine EKG.
Question 3 of 5
A patient who has had chest pain for several hours is admitted with a diagnosis of rule out acute myocardial infarction (AMI). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to best determine whether the patient has had an AMI?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cardiac-specific troponin. Troponin is a sensitive and specific marker for myocardial injury. It rises within 3-4 hours of an AMI and remains elevated for up to 2 weeks. Monitoring troponin levels helps in confirming the diagnosis of AMI. Myoglobin is less specific and elevates early but lacks specificity for cardiac damage. Homocysteine and C-reactive protein are markers for cardiovascular risk but are not specific for AMI.
Question 4 of 5
Three days after experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI), a patient who is scheduled for discharge asks for assistance with hygiene activities, saying, “I am too nervous about my heart to be alone while I get washed up.” Based on this information, which nursing diagnosis is appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anxiety related to change in health status. The patient's statement indicates fear and nervousness about their heart health, which aligns with anxiety. Activity intolerance (A) is not supported as the patient is seeking assistance for hygiene, not physical activity. Denial (C) is not appropriate as the patient acknowledges their nervousness about the heart. Altered body image (D) is not relevant based on the information provided.
Question 5 of 5
Which electrocardiographic (ECG) change is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider when caring for a patient with chest pain?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: ST-segment elevation. This ECG change is crucial to report because it indicates myocardial injury, often seen in acute myocardial infarction (heart attack). It requires immediate medical attention to prevent further damage to the heart. Inverted P wave (A) is commonly seen in conditions like atrial enlargement and is not typically associated with acute cardiac events. Sinus tachycardia (B) is a normal response to stress or physical activity and may not necessarily indicate a serious issue. First-degree atrioventricular block (D) is a relatively benign condition that usually does not require urgent intervention. In summary, ST-segment elevation is the most concerning ECG change due to its association with acute myocardial infarction, requiring prompt medical intervention.