ATI RN
Cardiovascular Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client has a heart rate of 70 and a P wave that comes early and is malformed. What is the likely cause of this?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Premature atrial contractions. This is because the client's heart rate is normal (70 bpm) and the P wave is early and malformed, which are classic signs of premature atrial contractions. These occur when the electrical impulse in the atria depolarizes prematurely, causing an early P wave on the ECG. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Normal sinus rhythm would not have an early and malformed P wave. C: Frequent PVCs present with a wide QRS complex, not a malformed P wave. D: Ventricular escape rhythm would have a slow heart rate and not an early P wave.
Question 2 of 5
Diltiazem (Cardizem) is ordered for a patient with newly diagnosed Prinzmetal’s (variant) angina. When teaching the patient, the nurse will include the information that diltiazem will
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Prinzmetal's angina is caused by coronary artery spasms. Step 2: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that helps relax coronary arteries. Step 3: Relaxing coronary arteries helps decrease spasms. Step 4: Therefore, the correct answer is C: decrease coronary artery spasms. Summary: A is incorrect because diltiazem does not directly affect heart palpitations. B is incorrect because it does not target plaque. D is incorrect because diltiazem does not increase contractile force.
Question 3 of 5
When caring for a patient who is recovering from a sudden cardiac death (SCD) event and has no evidence of an acute myocardial infarction (AMI), the nurse will anticipate teaching the patient that
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Sudden cardiac death (SCD) indicates a serious underlying heart condition. Step 2: Absence of acute myocardial infarction (AMI) suggests other causes need investigation. Step 3: Additional diagnostic testing can identify underlying causes to prevent future events. Step 4: Teaching the patient about the need for further testing is crucial for proper management. Summary: Option B is correct as it aligns with the need for comprehensive evaluation post-SCD. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the necessity of additional testing for proper management.
Question 4 of 5
When caring for a patient with acute coronary syndrome who has returned to the coronary care unit after having angioplasty with stent placement, the nurse obtains the following assessment data. Which data indicate the need for immediate action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Severe chest pain in a patient with acute coronary syndrome post-angioplasty indicates a potential complication like stent thrombosis or re-occlusion. Immediate action is needed to assess and manage. A: Heart rate 102 bpm may be expected post-procedure. B: Pedal pulses 1+ bilaterally may indicate decreased perfusion but not an immediate threat. D: Blood pressure 103/54 mm Hg may be low but not an immediate concern unless symptomatic.
Question 5 of 5
A client complains of crushing chest pain that radiates to his left arm. He should be presented with the following treatment:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Aspirin, oxygen, nitroglycerin, and morphine. This combination is recommended for a client with suspected acute coronary syndrome. Aspirin helps reduce blood clot formation, oxygen aids in oxygenation, nitroglycerin dilates blood vessels to improve blood flow, and morphine helps alleviate pain and reduce anxiety. Choice B is incorrect because codeine is not recommended due to potential respiratory depression. Choice C is incorrect because meperidine is not the preferred analgesic in this situation, and thrombolytics are not indicated unless there is confirmed ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction. Choice D is incorrect because nitroprusside is not typically used in this scenario.