ATI RN
Cardiovascular Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client has a heart rate of 70 and a P wave that comes early and is malformed. What is the likely cause of this?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Premature atrial contractions. This is because the client's heart rate is normal (70) and the P wave is coming early and malformed, indicating an early atrial depolarization. This is characteristic of premature atrial contractions, where an ectopic focus in the atria causes an early impulse. The other choices are incorrect because in a normal sinus rhythm (A), the P wave would be normal and not early or malformed. Frequent PVCs (C) would show wide and bizarre QRS complexes, not a malformed P wave. A ventricular escape rhythm (D) would have a slower heart rate and a different pattern of electrical activity.
Question 2 of 5
Diltiazem (Cardizem) is ordered for a patient with newly diagnosed Prinzmetal’s (variant) angina. When teaching the patient, the nurse will include the information that diltiazem will
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: decrease coronary artery spasms. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that helps to relax and dilate coronary arteries, reducing the frequency and severity of coronary artery spasms in Prinzmetal's angina. This action improves blood flow to the heart muscle, relieving chest pain. A: reduce heart palpitations - Diltiazem may cause bradycardia (slow heart rate) but is not primarily used to reduce heart palpitations. B: prevent coronary artery plaque - Diltiazem does not prevent the formation of coronary artery plaque. D: increase contractile force of the heart - Diltiazem actually decreases the contractile force of the heart by reducing cardiac workload and oxygen demand.
Question 3 of 5
When caring for a patient who is recovering from a sudden cardiac death (SCD) event and has no evidence of an acute myocardial infarction (AMI), the nurse will anticipate teaching the patient that
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because after a sudden cardiac death (SCD) event without evidence of an acute myocardial infarction (AMI), additional diagnostic testing is needed to determine the underlying cause and assess the risk of recurrence. This testing may include cardiac imaging, electrophysiological studies, and genetic testing. By identifying the specific cause, healthcare providers can tailor treatment plans to prevent future SCD events. A: This is incorrect because the risk of SCD recurrence can vary based on the underlying cause and individual patient factors. C: Long-term anticoagulation therapy is not typically indicated for SCD without evidence of AMI unless there is a specific indication such as atrial fibrillation or a clotting disorder. D: Limiting physical activity alone is not a comprehensive strategy for preventing future SCD events; individualized recommendations should be based on diagnostic findings.
Question 4 of 5
When caring for a patient with acute coronary syndrome who has returned to the coronary care unit after having angioplasty with stent placement, the nurse obtains the following assessment data. Which data indicate the need for immediate action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Report of severe chest pain. Severe chest pain in a patient with acute coronary syndrome after angioplasty with stent placement can indicate a potential complication like stent thrombosis or myocardial infarction. Immediate action is required to assess the patient's condition, administer appropriate interventions, and prevent further complications. A: Heart rate 102 beats/min - Although an elevated heart rate can indicate cardiac stress, it is not as urgent as severe chest pain in this context. B: Pedal pulses 1+ bilaterally - While decreased pedal pulses may indicate peripheral vascular issues, it is not as critical as addressing severe chest pain in a patient with acute coronary syndrome. D: Blood pressure 103/54 mm Hg - Although low blood pressure can be concerning, it is not as immediately life-threatening as severe chest pain in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
A client complains of crushing chest pain that radiates to his left arm. He should be presented with the following treatment:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Aspirin, oxygen, nitroglycerin, and morphine. 1. Aspirin helps to inhibit platelet aggregation. 2. Oxygen aids in improving oxygenation. 3. Nitroglycerin dilates coronary arteries, reducing cardiac workload. 4. Morphine helps in relieving pain and reducing anxiety. Summary: - Choice B: Codeine is not indicated for acute coronary syndrome. - Choice C: Meperidine is not recommended due to its adverse effects. - Choice D: Nitroprusside is not typically used in the initial treatment of acute coronary syndrome.