ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The client has a heart rate of 40 with electrical activity beginning at the AV node. What type of rhythm is the client having?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Junctional escape rhythm. A heart rate of 40 with electrical activity starting at the AV node indicates a slow rhythm originating from the junctional tissue. In this case, the AV node is acting as the escape pacemaker, generating electrical impulses to maintain the heart rate. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Normal sinus rhythm typically has a heart rate between 60-100 bpm. B: Atrial flutter presents with a rapid, regular atrial rate between 250-400 bpm. C: Atrial fibrillation shows chaotic and irregular electrical activity in the atria, not a slow heart rate.
Question 2 of 5
When titrating IV nitroglycerin for a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI), which action will the nurse take to evaluate the effectiveness of the drug?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ask about chest pain. In evaluating the effectiveness of IV nitroglycerin for a patient with MI, asking about chest pain is crucial as nitroglycerin is primarily used to relieve chest pain associated with angina and MI. By assessing if the patient's chest pain has improved or resolved, the nurse can determine the drug's effectiveness. Monitoring heart rate (A) may not directly reflect the drug's effectiveness in relieving chest pain. Checking blood pressure (C) may be important but not the primary indicator of nitroglycerin efficacy. Observing for dysrhythmias (D) is important but not a direct measure of chest pain relief.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with hyperlipidemia has a new order for colesevelam (Welchol). Which nursing action is appropriate when scheduling this medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Have the patient take the colesevelam 1 hour before breakfast. This is because colesevelam should be taken with a meal and liquid. By taking it before breakfast, the patient ensures that the medication is ingested with adequate food and fluid to optimize its therapeutic effect. Option A is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take colesevelam at bedtime. Option C is incorrect as there is no need to separate colesevelam from other medications by 2 hours. Option D is incorrect as there is no indication that colesevelam should be taken with aspirin.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse obtains the following data when assessing a patient who experienced an ST- segment-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) 2 days previously. Which information is most important to report to the health care provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Bilateral crackles in the mid-lower lobes are indicative of possible pulmonary edema, a common complication post-STEMI that requires immediate medical attention to prevent respiratory distress. Reporting this symptom promptly can help the provider initiate appropriate interventions. A: Elevated troponin levels are expected post-STEMI and are not typically an acute concern after 2 days. B: Patient denial of heart attack history may indicate a lack of awareness but does not require immediate intervention. D: Occasional premature atrial contractions are common and not typically urgent in the context of a recent STEMI.
Question 5 of 5
A key diagnostic test for heart failure is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: B-type natriuretic peptide. BNP is a hormone secreted by the heart in response to increased pressure and volume overload, which are hallmark features of heart failure. Elevated BNP levels indicate heart failure. Serum potassium (A) is not specific to heart failure. Troponin I (C) and cardiac enzymes (D) are markers of cardiac injury, not heart failure. BNP is the most specific and sensitive diagnostic test for heart failure.