ATI RN
Basic Nursing Care Needs of the Patient Questions
Question 1 of 5
The circulating nurse is caring for a patient intraoperatively. Which primary role of the circulating nurse will be implemented?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Managing patient care activities in the OR suite. The circulating nurse is responsible for coordinating and managing patient care activities during surgery, ensuring patient safety, maintaining aseptic technique, communicating with the surgical team, and documenting the surgical procedure. Suturing the surgical incision (A) is the responsibility of the surgeon. Assisting with applying sterile drapes (C) is typically the responsibility of the scrub nurse. Handing sterile instruments and supplies (D) is the responsibility of the scrub nurse as well. B is the correct answer because it aligns with the primary role of the circulating nurse in ensuring overall patient care and safety during surgery.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following medication types are used to decrease the workload of the heart by blocking sympathetic stimulation of receptors that work on the SA node and myocardial cells, thus decreasing the force of myocardial contraction and directly reducing a patient's heart rate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Beta-blockers. Beta-blockers work by blocking the beta-adrenergic receptors on the SA node and myocardial cells, leading to decreased sympathetic stimulation. This decreases the heart rate and the force of myocardial contraction, thus reducing the workload of the heart. Alpha-adrenergic agents (A) work differently by blocking alpha-adrenergic receptors. Calcium-channel blockers (C) block calcium channels in the heart, affecting the contractility of the heart but not specifically targeting sympathetic stimulation. Sodium-channel blockers (D) target sodium channels in the heart but do not directly reduce the workload of the heart by blocking sympathetic stimulation.
Question 3 of 5
While conducting an EKG on your post-myocardial infarction patient, you note the presence of consistently wide QRS complexes greater than 120 ms in duration. What does this most likely indicate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: An intraventricular conduction delay or right/left bundle branch block. Wide QRS complexes (>120 ms) suggest delayed ventricular depolarization, which can be caused by bundle branch blocks. In the context of a post-myocardial infarction patient, this is a common finding due to damage to the conduction system. Summary: B: A complete heart block is characterized by a lack of communication between the atria and ventricles, leading to a different EKG pattern. C: Wide QRS complexes do not directly indicate a current myocardial infarction; other EKG changes would be seen. D: Wide QRS complexes are not typically associated with congenital heart defects in this scenario, and emergency care may still be necessary.
Question 4 of 5
You are preparing to initiate a rapid sequence intubation on a pediatric patient who is exhibiting a borderline hypotensive state with a decreased level of consciousness and hypoventilation. He is quickly becoming hypoxic with a SpO2 of 77% and a delayed capillary refill. Which medication would be most effective in sedating this patient for the procedure?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ketamine. Ketamine is the most suitable choice for sedating this pediatric patient for rapid sequence intubation due to its unique properties. Ketamine provides sedation, analgesia, and amnesia without causing respiratory depression, making it ideal for patients with borderline hypotension and hypoventilation. It also maintains airway reflexes and airway tone, which is crucial during intubation. Succinylcholine (A) is a paralytic agent, not a sedative. Midazolam (B) and Propofol (D) can cause respiratory depression and hypotension, which may worsen the patient's condition.
Question 5 of 5
You are ordered to administer 0.3 mL of epinephrine for a moderate allergic reaction. What is the preferred initial route of administration of epinephrine for an allergic reaction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The preferred initial route of administration of epinephrine for an allergic reaction is intramuscular (IM). This is because IM injection allows for rapid absorption and onset of action, making it effective in treating allergic reactions. Subcutaneous (A) may be slower in onset and less reliable for immediate relief. Intravenous (C) administration is reserved for severe cases where immediate effects are needed. Endotracheal (D) route is not recommended for epinephrine administration due to potential complications and lack of reliability. Therefore, option B is the most appropriate initial route for administering epinephrine in a moderate allergic reaction.