ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The charts are stored in the Medical Records or storage room for at least _____ years.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Medical records are typically required to be retained for a certain period of time as mandated by legal and regulatory requirements. The retention period for medical records is generally between 5 to 10 years, depending on the jurisdiction and specific regulations governing healthcare facilities. Keeping medical records for this duration ensures that they are available for reference, audits, legal purposes, and continuity of care for patients. Storing medical records for an adequate length of time also helps in ensuring continuity of care and tracking patients' medical history over time, which is crucial for quality healthcare delivery. Therefore, storing charts in the Medical Records or storage room for at least 5-10 years aligns with standard practices in healthcare compliance and patient care.
Question 2 of 9
Nurse Ime, is a member of the Quality Assurance team of the hospital and has been always rated as very assertive. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an assertive person?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Being assertive means expressing one's thoughts, beliefs, and feelings in a confident and respectful manner while also considering the perspective of others. It does not involve pushing control on others. Assertive individuals do not impose their beliefs on others but express themselves clearly and confidently, respecting the opinions of others. So, standing up for what one believes in can be assertive, but pushing control on others is not a characteristic of assertiveness.
Question 3 of 9
What is NOT important for Myra to do when listening to tape recordings?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: It is not important for Myra to listen to the tape recordings only when she feels motivated or productive. In a nurse-patient interaction relationship, listening to tape recordings promptly (Choice A) is crucial because it ensures that any important information or cues are not missed or forgotten. Additionally, noting voice tone and inflection (Choice B) and observing pauses (Choice D) are essential for understanding the nuances and emotions conveyed during the interaction, which can be crucial in effective communication. Listening based on motivation may lead to delays and hamper the timely analysis and understanding of the interactions. Hence, it is important for Myra to prioritize active and focused listening to the tape recordings, regardless of her current motivation levels.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse knows that a dog bite has a shorter incubation for rabies if located in the
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rabies has a shorter incubation period if the bite is located on the hand. This is because bites on the hand are more likely to have direct access to nerve pathways, which can lead to a faster spread of the rabies virus to the central nervous system. In general, bites on parts of the body closer to the brain and spinal cord, such as the hand and face, can result in a quicker onset of rabies symptoms compared to bites on farther extremities like the leg or abdomen.
Question 5 of 9
Romy is diagnosed with small cell lung cancer (SCLC) a rapidly growing type of cancer. He and his family were shocked when told by the doctor that the patient will just undergo palliative treatment. Which nursing action is MOST APPROPRIATE?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the case of Romy being diagnosed with small cell lung cancer (SCLC) and undergoing palliative treatment, the most appropriate nursing action is to focus on providing relief from symptoms. Palliative care aims to improve the quality of life for patients with serious illnesses by managing their symptoms, such as pain, shortness of breath, nausea, and other side effects of treatment. As the cancer is advanced and the goal is not curative treatment but rather to keep the patient comfortable, symptom management becomes a priority to ensure Romy's physical comfort and well-being during this difficult time. Providing relief from symptoms is crucial in palliative care to help enhance the patient's quality of life and ensure they are as comfortable as possible.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following salivary glands is located inferior and posterior to the mandible and produces serous saliva rich in enzymes?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The submandibular gland is located inferior and posterior to the mandible. It produces a mixed type of saliva, which is primarily serous (enzyme-rich) but also contains some mucous components. This gland plays a significant role in digestion, as its serous saliva contains enzymes such as amylase that help break down carbohydrates in the mouth before they reach the stomach.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with renal failure presents with confusion, seizures, asterixis, and a sweet odor to the breath. Laboratory findings reveal severe metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, and elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient's presentation with renal failure, confusion, seizures, asterixis, and a sweet odor to the breath, along with laboratory findings of severe metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, and elevated BUN and creatinine levels, is consistent with uremic encephalopathy. Uremic encephalopathy is a neurological complication of acute or chronic renal failure resulting from the buildup of uremic toxins in the blood, leading to various neurological symptoms such as confusion and seizures. The sweet odor to the breath can be attributed to the presence of urea, a waste product that accumulates in renal failure. Other metabolic abnormalities like hyperkalemia and severe metabolic acidosis are also common in renal failure. It is crucial to promptly recognize and manage uremic encephalopathy to prevent further neurological complications.
Question 8 of 9
Choose from the following the primary goals of TPN? I. promote weight gain II. improve nutritional status III. maintain muscle mass IV. establish nitrogen balance! V. enhance healing process
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) is a method of providing nutrition to patients who cannot or should not obtain their nutrition through regular oral intake. The primary goals of TPN include promoting weight gain, improving nutritional status, maintaining muscle mass, and establishing nitrogen balance. These goals are crucial to support the overall health and well-being of the patient receiving TPN. Enhancing the healing process is an important aspect of TPN as well, but it is not considered one of the primary goals as weight gain, nutritional status, muscle mass, and nitrogen balance are typically the immediate priorities when administering TPN.
Question 9 of 9
There are pre operative medications given to the patient. Which of the following drugs are given in order to decrease intra-operative anesthetic requirements and pain?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Demerol (meperidine hydrochloride) is an opioid analgesic commonly used as a preoperative medication to decrease intra-operative anesthetic requirements and provide analgesia. Opioids like Demerol act on the central nervous system to reduce pain sensations, making it an effective choice for preoperative pain management. This can help decrease the amount of anesthesia needed during surgery, leading to better pain control and overall patient comfort during and after the procedure. Celebrex, acetaminophen, and ibuprofen are also used for pain management, but they do not have the same potency and mechanism of action as opioids like Demerol for reducing intra-operative anesthetic requirements.