ATI RN
NCLEX Questions on Neurological System Questions
Question 1 of 5
The cerebellum, ________ portion of the brain, is located below the occipital lobes of the cerebrum.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The cerebellum is the second largest portion of the brain, located below the occipital lobes of the cerebrum. It plays a crucial role in coordinating voluntary movements, balance, and posture. While the cerebrum is the largest part of the brain, the cerebellum is smaller but still significant in size and function. Therefore, the second largest is the correct answer.
Question 2 of 5
Loss of muscle coordination results from damage to the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
A 25 year-old housewife presents to the urgent care clinic for evaluation of paralysis in her face on the right side. She has a history of an upper respiratory infection 2 weeks before the onset of symptoms. She states that her face on the right is drooping and she is not able to close the right eye. On physical examination, you note that her forehead is smooth on the right, the left palpebral fissure appears wider than the right, and her nasolabial fold on the right is flattened and she is drooling. Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bell's palsy is a condition characterized by sudden, unilateral facial paralysis due to inflammation or compression of the facial nerve (CN VII). It often follows a viral infection and presents with drooping of the face, inability to close the eye, and flattening of the nasolabial fold. A cortical stroke typically spares the forehead, and Horner's syndrome involves ptosis and miosis.
Question 4 of 5
In the development of the nervous system, which is the correct order of events?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct sequence of nervous system development involves: (1) specification of cells as neurons, (2) migration of neurons to their final positions, (3) formation of connections with targets, and (4) refinement of synaptic connections. This order ensures proper neural circuit formation and function. Specification occurs first, followed by migration, which positions neurons correctly. Axon outgrowth and target connection occur next, and finally, synaptic pruning and refinement optimize neural communication.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a subdural hematoma becomes restless and confused, with dilation of the ipsilateral pupil. The physician orders mannitol for which of the following reasons?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that draws fluid from the brain tissue into the vascular system, reducing intracranial pressure (ICP). This is critical in cases of subdural hematoma, where increased ICP can lead to brain herniation and further neurological damage. The drug works by creating an osmotic gradient, pulling water from the extracellular space of the brain into the bloodstream, which is then excreted by the kidneys. This mechanism helps alleviate symptoms like restlessness, confusion, and pupil dilation caused by increased ICP.