ATI RN
microbiology an introduction test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The cell surface of pathogenic gram-negative bacteria can be covered in villi and cilia. What function do these structures have?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bacterial adhesion to the surface of the host cells, conjugation. Villi and cilia on the cell surface of pathogenic bacteria help in bacterial adhesion to host cells, facilitating the process of infection. Conjugation is the transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells, which can be aided by these structures. The other choices are incorrect because RNA exchange between cells (A) is typically facilitated by different structures like pili, inhibition of complement activity (B) is not related to the function of villi and cilia, and resistance to antibody opsonization (D) is usually achieved through other mechanisms such as capsule formation.
Question 2 of 9
What clinical specimen can be analysed in the diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Certainly! The correct answer is D because all three options (A, B, and C) can be analyzed in the diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections. Genital ulcer secretions can reveal the presence of pathogens causing STIs, lymph node punctate can indicate systemic infection, and serum can be tested for specific STI antibodies. Therefore, all these clinical specimens are essential for a comprehensive diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections. The other choices (A, B, C) are incorrect as they individually represent important specimens used in the diagnosis process.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is most commonly associated with nosocomial infections?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly found in hospital environments. 2. It is an opportunistic pathogen causing various nosocomial infections. 3. Its ability to develop resistance to antibiotics makes it a significant threat. 4. Corynebacterium diphtheriae causes diphtheria, not common nosocomial infections. 5. Shigella sonnei causes foodborne illness, not typically nosocomial infections. 6. "None of the above" is incorrect as Pseudomonas is indeed commonly associated with nosocomial infections.
Question 4 of 9
While registering the child to the school Mantoux's test was made to define whether revaccination was needed test result is negative. What does this result of the test mean?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Mantoux test measures cell-mediated immunity response to tuberculosis. Step 2: A negative result means no significant immune response to TB antigens. Step 3: Option A is incorrect, as it refers to antitoxic immunity, not cell immunity. Step 4: Option B is incorrect, as it mentions antibodies, not cell-mediated immunity. Step 5: Option C is incorrect, as it states absence of antibodies, not cell immunity. Step 6: Option D is correct as it directly correlates with the purpose of Mantoux test.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following viruses has the name of the city where it was first discovered:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Marburg virus is named after the German city Marburg where it was first identified in 1967. 2. Chikungunya virus is named after a village in Tanzania. 3. Measles virus got its name from the Middle English word "maselen" meaning "many little spots". 4. Epstein-Barr virus is named after Michael Epstein and Yvonne Barr, who discovered it. Summary: B is correct as it is directly named after the city of its discovery. A, C, and D are incorrect as they are named after other locations, characteristics, or discoverers.
Question 6 of 9
Systemic amebiasis with involvment of intestines, liver, lungs was diagnosed in a 52-year-old patient. What drug should be prescribed?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Metronidazole is the drug of choice for systemic amebiasis due to its high efficacy against Entamoeba histolytica. It has good tissue penetration and can treat intestinal, liver, and lung involvement. Quiniofone (A) has limited use and is not recommended for amebiasis. Enteroseptol (B) is not effective against systemic amebiasis. Tetracycline (D) is not the first-line treatment for amebiasis and has limited efficacy against Entamoeba histolytica.
Question 7 of 9
Rheumatic fever is usually a complication of a(n) __________ infection.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Streptococcus pyogenes is the causative agent of strep throat. 2. If untreated, strep throat can lead to rheumatic fever. 3. Rheumatic fever is an autoimmune complication of streptococcal infections. 4. E. coli, S. epidermidis, and S. aureus are not typically associated with rheumatic fever.
Question 8 of 9
The most important fungi that cause diseases of the skin, hair, and nails are called:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C: dermatophytes Rationale: 1. Dermatophytes are fungi that specifically infect the skin, hair, and nails. 2. They are the most common fungi causing such infections in humans. 3. Plasmodium and sporozoites are parasites causing malaria, not skin diseases. 4. Nematodes are a type of roundworm and do not typically cause skin, hair, or nail infections. In summary, dermatophytes are the correct answer because they are specialized fungi that commonly cause skin, hair, and nail diseases, distinguishing them from the other choices.
Question 9 of 9
A 37-year-old male was admitted to a hospital complaining of abdominal pain, difficulty in swallowing and breathing, constipation, and nausea. He developed respiratory failure and required endotracheal intubation and ventilation. Two days before, the patient consumed dried salted fish bought from an artisanal producer. Laboratory investigation for infectious pathogen was performed using Kitt-Tarozzi's method. Observation under a bright field microscopy revealed the presence of typical microorganisms with tennis racket appearance. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Botulism. Botulism is caused by the toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum bacteria found in improperly preserved or canned foods. The symptoms described align with botulism, such as difficulty swallowing and breathing due to muscle paralysis. The tennis racket appearance seen under microscopy corresponds to the characteristic appearance of Clostridium botulinum spores. The other choices can be ruled out based on the clinical presentation and microscopy findings. Cholera typically presents with severe watery diarrhea, Nontyphoidal Salmonella infection with fever and gastrointestinal symptoms, and Typhoid fever with high fever and abdominal pain. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis in this case is botulism.