The cell surface of pathogenic gram-negative bacteria can be covered in villi and cilia. What function do these structures have?

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Question 1 of 9

The cell surface of pathogenic gram-negative bacteria can be covered in villi and cilia. What function do these structures have?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bacterial adhesion to the surface of the host cells, conjugation. Villi and cilia on the cell surface of pathogenic bacteria help in bacterial adhesion to host cells, facilitating the process of infection. Conjugation is the transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells, which can be aided by these structures. The other choices are incorrect because RNA exchange between cells (A) is typically facilitated by different structures like pili, inhibition of complement activity (B) is not related to the function of villi and cilia, and resistance to antibody opsonization (D) is usually achieved through other mechanisms such as capsule formation.

Question 2 of 9

Member of a family ‘Reoviruses' that causes diarrhea in infants is called:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rotavirus. Rotavirus is a member of the Reoviridae family known for causing diarrhea in infants. It infects the lining of the small intestine, leading to symptoms like vomiting and watery diarrhea. Rationale: 1. Rotavirus is specifically known for causing diarrhea in infants. 2. Reoviruses are a family of viruses to which rotavirus belongs. 3. Congovirus (B), Hepadnavirus (C), and Picornavirus (D) do not belong to the Reoviridae family and are not associated with causing diarrhea in infants. In summary, choice A is correct as it aligns with the characteristics of the given family of viruses and their associated symptoms, while choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not fit these criteria.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following bacteria produces a neurotoxin that causes botulism?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium botulinum. Clostridium botulinum produces the neurotoxin that causes botulism. This bacterium thrives in anaerobic conditions and contaminated food. The neurotoxin blocks acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle paralysis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, Escherichia coli can cause food poisoning but not botulism, and Staphylococcus aureus produces enterotoxins causing food poisoning, not botulism.

Question 4 of 9

The key diagnostic feature of Corynebacterium diphtheriae is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: presence of metachromatic granules. This is because Corynebacterium diphtheriae is known for containing metachromatic granules, which are characteristic of this species. These granules can be observed under a microscope and aid in the identification of the bacteria. Explanation of other choices: A: formation of spores - Corynebacterium diphtheriae does not form spores. Spore formation is more commonly seen in bacteria such as Bacillus and Clostridium species. C: production of coagulase - Coagulase production is a characteristic of Staphylococcus aureus, not Corynebacterium diphtheriae. D: beta-hemolysis on blood agar - Corynebacterium diphtheriae does not exhibit beta-hemolysis on blood agar. This type of hemolysis is more typical of Streptococcus pyogenes.

Question 5 of 9

The patient has developed pain in the axillary area, rise of temperature developed 10 hours ago. On examination: shaky gait is marked, the tongue is coated by white coating. The pulse is frequent. The painful lymphatic nodules are determined in the axillary area. The skin is erythematous and glistering over the lymphatic nodules. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is D: Tularemia. Tularemia is a bacterial infection caused by Francisella tularensis. The symptoms described align with tularemia, such as pain in axillary area, fever, shaky gait, coated tongue, frequent pulse, painful lymphatic nodules, and erythematous skin over nodules. The key features pointing towards tularemia are the presence of lymphadenitis in the axillary area and the erythematous, glistering skin over the nodules, which are characteristic of ulceroglandular tularemia. Bubonic plague (A) presents with painful, swollen lymph nodes called buboes but typically lacks the erythematous skin findings. Acute purulent lymphadenitis (B) usually presents with pus-filled lymph nodes but does not typically cause shaky gait or coated tongue. Lymphogranulomatosis (C) is a term for Hodgkin's lymphoma, which does not

Question 6 of 9

Which bacteria is commonly associated with foodborne illnesses caused by contaminated water?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vibrio cholerae. This bacterium is commonly associated with foodborne illnesses caused by contaminated water due to its ability to survive and multiply in water sources. Vibrio cholerae causes cholera, a severe gastrointestinal infection transmitted through contaminated food and water. Clostridium difficile, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are not typically associated with foodborne illnesses caused by contaminated water. Clostridium difficile causes gastrointestinal infections linked to antibiotic use, Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis through respiratory transmission, and Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes sexually transmitted infections.

Question 7 of 9

For the specific prophylaxis of rabies it is NOT CORRECT that

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because reinfection is indeed possible with rabies virus. Step 1: Reinfection occurs if a person is exposed to the virus again after initial infection. Step 2: Once infected, the virus can remain dormant in the body and become active upon re-exposure. Step 3: Therefore, it is essential to continue preventive measures even after initial immunization. Summary: Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because antibodies develop within 14-15 days post-immunization, HRIG is administered shortly after exposure, and a specific vaccination schedule is followed for rabies prophylaxis, respectively.

Question 8 of 9

Systemic amebiasis with involvment of intestines, liver, lungs was diagnosed in a 52-year-old patient. What drug should be prescribed?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Metronidazole is the drug of choice for systemic amebiasis due to its high efficacy against Entamoeba histolytica. It has good tissue penetration and can treat intestinal, liver, and lung involvement. Quiniofone (A) has limited use and is not recommended for amebiasis. Enteroseptol (B) is not effective against systemic amebiasis. Tetracycline (D) is not the first-line treatment for amebiasis and has limited efficacy against Entamoeba histolytica.

Question 9 of 9

OSHA is a division of the

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: 1. OSHA stands for Occupational Safety and Health Administration. 2. OSHA is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions in the US. 3. The U.S. Department of Labor oversees OSHA's operations and regulations. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as OSHA is a division of the U.S. Department of Labor. 5. Other choices are incorrect because they are not directly related to OSHA's jurisdiction or responsibilities.

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