ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The cause of death of most AIDS patients who develop multiple opportunistic infections is/are the following: a.Weakened immune system impairs response to therapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Most AIDS patients with multiple opportunistic infections die due to a weakened immune system impairing response to therapy. When the immune system is compromised, the body struggles to fight off infections effectively, even with treatment. This results in the infections becoming more severe and ultimately leading to death. Summary of Other Choices: B: Weakened immune system impairs resistance to infection - While this is true, it doesn’t directly address the cause of death in AIDS patients with multiple infections. C: Infection cannot be treated effectively - This is not entirely accurate as infections can be treated, but the weakened immune system hinders the response to treatment. Overall, Choice A is the most accurate as it directly links the weakened immune system to the inability to respond effectively to therapy, leading to fatal outcomes.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is observing a client receiving antiplatelet therapy for adverse reactions. Antiplatelet drugs most commonly produce which hypersensitivity reaction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bronchospasm. Antiplatelet drugs commonly cause hypersensitivity reactions like bronchospasm due to their effects on platelet function. They can trigger an allergic response leading to bronchoconstriction. Difficulty hearing (A) is not a common hypersensitivity reaction to antiplatelet therapy. Confusion (B) is more commonly associated with central nervous system effects rather than hypersensitivity reactions. Agranulocytosis (D) is a severe drop in white blood cells and is not typically a hypersensitivity reaction to antiplatelet drugs.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following statements would be the nurse's response to a famiiy member asking questions about a client's transient ischemic attack (TIA)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it accurately defines a transient ischemic attack (TIA) as a temporary interruption in blood flow to the brain. This response demonstrates the nurse's knowledge and ability to provide accurate information to the family member. Option A is incorrect because it deflects the question to the doctor without providing any information. Option B is incorrect because it inaccurately states that TIA causes permanent brain damage, which is not true. Option D is also incorrect because it simply restates the abbreviation without providing any explanation of what TIA actually means.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following is a discharge criterion from the PACU for a patient following surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxygen saturation above 90%. This is a discharge criterion because adequate oxygen saturation indicates the patient is breathing well and there is no immediate respiratory compromise. Oxygen saturation below 90% (choice C) would indicate hypoxemia and would not be safe for discharge. IV narcotics given less than 15 minutes ago (choice B) can still be in effect and may impair the patient's ability to function post-surgery. IV narcotics given less than 30 minutes ago (choice D) is a longer timeframe but still not ideal for discharge as the effects of the narcotics may not have fully worn off.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following tests would the nurse use as an initial screening test to determine hearing loss?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Whisper voice test. This test is used as an initial screening for hearing loss because it is simple, quick, and easily administered by a nurse. The nurse would whisper words or numbers at a specific distance from the patient to assess their ability to hear and repeat the whispered sounds accurately. This test provides a quick indication of potential hearing impairment. The other choices are incorrect: A: Romberg test assesses balance and not hearing. B: Caloric test evaluates the vestibular system, not hearing. C: Otoscopic examination is used to examine the ear canal and tympanic membrane, not to screen for hearing loss.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the ff nursing interventions should a nurse perform when caring for a client with congestive heart failure who has decreased cardiac output?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assess apical heart before administering digitalis. This is important because digitalis can slow down the heart rate, so it is crucial to monitor the client's heart rate before giving the medication to prevent further decrease in cardiac output. Encouraging activities that engage the Valsalva maneuver (A) is contraindicated in clients with congestive heart failure as it can lead to increased intra-thoracic pressure and decreased venous return, worsening cardiac output. Encouraging the client to perform exercises (B) may also increase cardiac workload and exacerbate symptoms. Offering small frequent feedings (D) is generally beneficial for clients with congestive heart failure to prevent overeating and promote easier digestion, but it does not directly address the decreased cardiac output concern in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
A woman sees her primary care provider because of extreme fatigue for the past 2 months; she difficulty lifting even light objects. Her physician suspects myasthenia gravis. Which of the ff. tests should the nurse anticipate to confirm this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tensilon test. The Tensilon test involves administering edrophonium (Tensilon) to temporarily improve muscle weakness in myasthenia gravis patients, confirming the diagnosis. Other choices are incorrect: A (Mestinon test) is not a standard diagnostic test for myasthenia gravis, B (Pulmonary function studies) are not specific for myasthenia gravis, and C (Quinine tolerance test) is not a relevant test for this condition.
Question 8 of 9
Antimetabolites are a diverse group of antineoplastic agents that interfere with various metabolic actions of the cell. The mechanism of action of antimetabolites interferes with:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because antimetabolites interfere with the synthesis of nucleic acids (RNA and/or DNA), affecting multiple stages of RNA and DNA synthesis. This disruption hinders cell division and leads to cell death. Choices A and B are incorrect because antimetabolites do not specifically target cell division during the M phase or normal cellular processes during the S phase. Choice C is also incorrect because antimetabolites primarily target nucleic acid synthesis rather than altering the chemical structure of DNA or the binding between DNA molecules.
Question 9 of 9
A new nurse is completing an assessment on an 80-year-old patient who is alert and oriented. The patient’s daughter is present in the room. Which action by the nurse will require follow-up by the charge nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nurse should always prioritize communication with the patient, especially when the patient is alert and oriented. Speaking only to the patient's daughter could undermine the patient's autonomy and right to be involved in their care. It is important for the nurse to directly address the patient to gather accurate information and ensure patient-centered care. Making eye contact (A), leaning forward (C), and nodding periodically (D) are all appropriate communication techniques that show attentiveness and engagement with the patient, which are crucial in building rapport and trust.