ATI RN
mastering microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The causative agent of the disease gas gangrene Clostridium perfringens is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because Clostridium perfringens is a Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium, which matches the description provided. It is motile and peritrichous (having flagella all over the surface) without a capsule. This bacterium is known to cause gas gangrene due to its ability to produce toxins that destroy tissue. Choice A is incorrect because Clostridium perfringens is Gram-positive, not Gram-negative, and it does not have a capsule. Choice B is incorrect because Clostridium perfringens is not motile and does not have flagella all over its surface. Choice D is incorrect because Clostridium perfringens is Gram-positive, not Gram-negative, and it is motile without a capsule.
Question 2 of 9
Adenoviruses have helical capsids:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Adenoviruses are known to have icosahedral capsids, not helical. Step 2: Helical capsids are typically found in viruses like tobacco mosaic virus. Step 3: Therefore, the statement that adenoviruses have helical capsids is FALSE. Summary: A is incorrect as adenoviruses do not have helical capsids. C is incorrect as there is no situation where adenoviruses have helical capsids. D is incorrect as there is a clear correct answer, which is B.
Question 3 of 9
A 40-year-old patient presents with abdominal pain, frequent loose stools with mucus and blood. Stool analysis revealed vegetative forms of some protozoa sized 30-40 microns, with short pseudopodia, containing large amounts of phagocytosed erythrocytes. What protozoan disease does the patient have?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Amebiasis. The patient's symptoms of abdominal pain, loose stools with mucus and blood, along with the presence of protozoa containing phagocytosed erythrocytes in stool analysis are indicative of Entamoeba histolytica infection. The size (30-40 microns) and pseudopodia characteristics match E. histolytica. Amebiasis commonly presents with dysentery, while Leishmaniasis (B) typically causes skin ulcers. Trichomoniasis (C) is a sexually transmitted infection, not associated with the described symptoms. Giardiasis (D) is characterized by foul-smelling diarrhea and steatorrhea, not bloody diarrhea as seen in this case.
Question 4 of 9
Penicillin-resistant, beta-lactamase-producing strains must be detected..
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Before antibiotic therapy is begun. Detecting penicillin-resistant, beta-lactamase-producing strains before antibiotic therapy is crucial to ensure proper treatment. If detected after therapy (choice A), it may lead to treatment failure. Detection during therapy (choice C) may result in delayed or ineffective treatment. Choice D is incorrect as early detection is essential for successful management.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is a common cause of pneumonia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. - Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. - Mycobacterium tuberculosis can cause pulmonary tuberculosis, which can present as pneumonia-like symptoms. - Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an opportunistic pathogen that can cause pneumonia in immunocompromised individuals. Therefore, all three bacteria can cause pneumonia, making option D the correct choice. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they each represent a bacterium that can cause pneumonia, so only selecting one of them would not encompass all common causes of pneumonia.
Question 6 of 9
A 34-year-old male visited Tajikistan. After return, he complains of fever up to 40oC which occurs every second day and is accompanied by chills, sweating. Hepatosplenomegaly is present. Blood test results: RBC- 3x1012/l, b- 80 g/l, WBC- 4x109/l, eosinophils - 1%, stab neutrophils - 5%, segmented neutrophils - 60%, lymphocytes - 24%, monocytes - 10%, ESR - 25 mm/h. What is the provisional diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malaria. The patient's travel history to an endemic area like Tajikistan, along with symptoms of fever with chills, sweating, and hepatosplenomegaly, are classic for malaria. The blood test results show anemia (low RBC and hemoglobin levels), which can occur in malaria due to hemolysis. The presence of eosinophils and lymphocytes are not typical for malaria, but the overall clinical picture fits. Infectious mononucleosis (choice B) typically presents with sore throat, lymphadenopathy, and atypical lymphocytosis, which are not seen in this case. Sepsis (choice C) is characterized by systemic inflammatory response syndrome and organ dysfunction due to infection, which does not align with the symptoms and findings in the case. Typhoid fever (choice D) usually presents with gradual onset of sustained fever, abdominal pain, headache, and constipation, which are not present in this patient
Question 7 of 9
Poxviruses are the largest viruses, almost visible on a light microscope.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Poxviruses are indeed the largest viruses, ranging from 200-450 nm in size, which is close to the resolution limit of a light microscope. This makes them almost visible under a light microscope. The other choices are incorrect because poxviruses are not smaller or uncertain in size (choices B and C), nor are they partially visible - they are almost visible due to their relatively large size.
Question 8 of 9
The virus most commonly transmitted during pregnancy is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: cytomegalovirus. CMV is the most common virus transmitted during pregnancy, leading to potential serious complications for the fetus. It can cause birth defects, hearing loss, and developmental delays. CMV is commonly spread through bodily fluids. HIV (B) can also be transmitted during pregnancy but is less common. Herpes simplex virus (C) can be transmitted but typically results in localized infection. Epstein-Barr virus (D) is not commonly transmitted during pregnancy.
Question 9 of 9
Which bacterial structure helps in the movement towards or away from chemical stimuli?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Flagella are the correct answer because they are long, whip-like structures that aid in bacterial movement towards or away from chemical stimuli. They rotate like propellers, allowing the bacterium to navigate its environment. Pili are used for attachment, not movement. Capsules are involved in protection and adherence, not chemotaxis. Fimbriae help in attachment to surfaces, not in movement towards stimuli.