The category of drugs that receives the highest regulation by the federal Controlled Substances Act are Schedule ________ drugs.

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Psychotropic Medication Quiz Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

The category of drugs that receives the highest regulation by the federal Controlled Substances Act are Schedule ________ drugs.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is A) I. The Controlled Substances Act classifies drugs into five schedules based on their potential for abuse and medical use. Schedule I drugs have the highest potential for abuse and no accepted medical use, thus they receive the highest regulation. This includes drugs like heroin and LSD. Option B) II is incorrect because Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse but are recognized for their medical use with severe restrictions. Examples include oxycodone and morphine. Option C) III and D) IV are also incorrect as they represent drugs with decreasing potential for abuse and accepted medical uses. Educationally, understanding the Controlled Substances Act and drug schedules is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those prescribing or working with psychotropic medications. It helps ensure safe prescribing practices, patient education, and compliance with legal regulations. Knowing the distinctions between drug schedules can prevent misuse, diversion, and potential harm to patients.

Question 2 of 5

The Controlled Substances Act, among other provisions, established five categories of controlled substances, also referred to as:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) Schedules. The Controlled Substances Act established five categories of controlled substances known as schedules. Each schedule categorizes drugs based on their potential for abuse, accepted medical use, and likelihood of causing dependence. This classification helps regulate the manufacturing, distribution, and prescribing of these substances to prevent misuse and harm. Option B) Planners is incorrect because it does not relate to the classification of controlled substances. Option C) Items is incorrect as it does not reflect the legal classification system under the Controlled Substances Act. Option D) Scales is also incorrect as it does not pertain to the classification of drugs based on their potential risks and benefits. Understanding the categories of controlled substances is crucial for healthcare professionals, particularly those prescribing psychotropic medications. It helps them make informed decisions, monitor patients for potential misuse or dependence, and comply with legal regulations. By knowing the correct terminology like "schedules," healthcare providers can ensure safe and effective use of psychotropic medications in their practice.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following EEG patterns is rarely seen in normal patients and has a high specificity for temporal lobe epilepsy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is C) rhythmic temporal delta. This EEG pattern is rarely seen in normal patients and has a high specificity for temporal lobe epilepsy. Rhythmic temporal delta waves are characteristic of temporal lobe epilepsy due to their location and specific frequency. These waves indicate abnormal electrical activity in the temporal lobe, which is a common site for seizure activity in epilepsy. Option A) 14 and 6 positive spikes, while suggestive of epileptiform activity, are not as specific to temporal lobe epilepsy as rhythmic temporal delta waves. Option B) Diffuse slow activity is a non-specific finding that can be seen in various conditions and is not highly indicative of temporal lobe epilepsy. Option D) Triphasic waves are typically associated with metabolic encephalopathy or toxic-metabolic conditions, not specifically temporal lobe epilepsy. Educationally, understanding EEG patterns is crucial in diagnosing and managing neurological conditions like epilepsy. Recognizing the specific EEG patterns associated with different types of epilepsy can guide treatment decisions and improve patient outcomes. By learning to differentiate between EEG patterns, healthcare providers can provide more accurate diagnoses and tailored treatment plans for patients with epilepsy.

Question 4 of 5

A 40-year-old woman is admitted to an epilepsy monitoring unit for evaluation of paroxysmal episodes of neurologic dysfunction. Her episodes involve nonrhythmic shaking of both arms and pelvic thrusting without EEG correlation; psychogenic nonepileptic events are diagnosed. Which of the following characteristics is most associated with a good outcome (ie, resolution of episodes)?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is option D) shorter duration of illness. In the context of psychogenic nonepileptic events (PNEE), a shorter duration of illness is associated with a better outcome because early identification and intervention can lead to improved prognosis. Here's a detailed breakdown of why the other options are incorrect: A) Episodes with prominent motor features: While it may seem logical that more noticeable symptoms would lead to a better outcome, the presence of prominent motor features does not necessarily correlate with resolution of PNEE episodes. It is the underlying psychological factors and appropriate management that influence outcomes. B) Female gender: Gender is not a determining factor in the resolution of PNEE episodes. Both men and women can experience PNEE, and outcomes are more closely related to early diagnosis and effective treatment rather than gender. C) Lower educational achievement: Educational achievement level is not causally related to the resolution of PNEE episodes. While educational attainment may impact access to resources or understanding of the condition, it does not directly influence the course of the illness. Educational Context: Understanding the factors associated with better outcomes in PNEE is crucial for healthcare professionals involved in the care of patients with functional neurological disorders. Early recognition, appropriate diagnosis, patient education, and tailored interventions are key components in managing PNEE effectively. By recognizing the importance of early intervention, healthcare providers can improve patient outcomes and quality of life.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following medications is most likely to be associated with interictal spikes or epileptiform abnormalities on EEG?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is A) cefepime. Cefepime is a cephalosporin antibiotic that has been known to be associated with interictal spikes or epileptiform abnormalities on EEG, particularly in patients with renal impairment or high doses. This is due to its potential to lower the seizure threshold in susceptible individuals. Doxycycline (B) is an antibiotic from the tetracycline class and is not typically associated with EEG abnormalities. Fluoxetine (C) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used for depression and is not known to cause interictal spikes. Methylphenidate (D) is a stimulant commonly used to treat ADHD and does not typically have EEG abnormalities as a side effect. Understanding the potential side effects and interactions of psychotropic medications is crucial for healthcare providers, especially when managing patients with comorbid conditions. This knowledge can help in making informed decisions regarding medication selection, dosing, and monitoring to ensure the safety and well-being of patients. It also highlights the importance of individualizing treatment based on a patient's unique characteristics and medical history.

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