ATI RN
Pediatric Nursing Study Guide Questions
Question 1 of 5
The BEST treatment for a 16-year-old female adolescent with Behcet disease involving oral and genital ulcers and erythema nodosum is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the case of a 16-year-old female with Behcet disease involving oral and genital ulcers and erythema nodosum, the BEST treatment option is colchicine (Option A). Colchicine is effective in managing the symptoms of Behcet disease, particularly oral and genital ulcers, due to its anti-inflammatory properties. It helps reduce inflammation and control ulcer formation, which are common manifestations of Behcet disease in adolescents. Azathioprine (Option B), cyclophosphamide (Option C), and steroids (Option D) are not the first-line treatments for Behcet disease in this scenario. Azathioprine and cyclophosphamide are immunosuppressants that are usually reserved for severe cases or when colchicine fails to provide adequate symptom relief. Steroids are not preferred due to their potential for significant side effects, especially in long-term use in adolescents. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind treatment choices is crucial for nursing students to provide safe and evidence-based care. Knowing the appropriate medications for specific conditions like Behcet disease ensures optimal patient outcomes. It is essential to consider the patient's age, disease presentation, and potential side effects of medications when selecting the most appropriate treatment option.
Question 2 of 5
Regarding physical abuse, the physical signs in abused children (as bite marks) may be found in up to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In pediatric nursing, it is crucial to recognize signs of physical abuse in children to ensure their safety and well-being. The correct answer is A) 5%. Bite marks are a relatively uncommon physical sign of abuse, accounting for only a small percentage of cases. This rarity makes it important for healthcare professionals to be vigilant and thorough in their assessments to detect such subtle indicators. Option B) 15%, Option C) 25%, and Option D) 35% are incorrect because they overestimate the prevalence of bite marks as a sign of physical abuse. Selecting these options could lead to misinterpretation of findings and potentially missing other more common indicators of abuse. Educationally, understanding the prevalence of physical signs like bite marks in abused children helps nurses and healthcare providers make informed decisions when assessing and caring for pediatric patients. By knowing the accurate statistics, professionals can prioritize their assessments and interventions effectively to protect vulnerable children from harm. Vigilance, knowledge, and a comprehensive understanding of all potential signs of abuse are essential in pediatric nursing practice.
Question 3 of 5
A 15-month-old male child with failure to thrive, diarrhea, and fatty stool. Of the following, the MOST common possible cause of his illness is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the most common possible cause of the 15-month-old male child's symptoms of failure to thrive, diarrhea, and fatty stool is malabsorption, which is option A. Malabsorption refers to the impaired absorption of nutrients in the gastrointestinal tract. In children with malabsorption, essential nutrients like fats, proteins, and carbohydrates are not properly absorbed, leading to symptoms like failure to thrive, diarrhea, and fatty stool. Intestinal parasites (option B) can also cause similar symptoms, but malabsorption is more common in this age group. Milk protein intolerance (option C) can lead to symptoms like diarrhea, but it typically presents differently, such as with blood or mucus in the stool. Pancreatic insufficiency (option D) is a less common cause of these symptoms compared to malabsorption in pediatric patients. Educationally, understanding the common causes of failure to thrive in children is crucial for pediatric nurses. By recognizing the signs and symptoms associated with malabsorption, nurses can work with healthcare providers to diagnose and manage the condition effectively. This knowledge helps in providing appropriate care and support to children and their families facing such health challenges.
Question 4 of 5
You are called to the delivery of a boy at weeks' gestational age with thick meconium-stained fluid and type II decelerations The obstetrician rapidly delivers the infant and hands him to you for care The boy is hypotonic, cyanotic, apneic, and bradycardic The most appropriate step is to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate step is to select option D, which is to intubate the trachea and provide positive-pressure ventilation. This is the correct choice because the infant is presenting with signs of severe respiratory distress, including hypotonia, cyanosis, apnea, and bradycardia. Immediate intervention to establish an airway and provide ventilatory support is crucial in this critical situation. Option A, stimulating the infant to breathe, is not appropriate in this case as the infant is already apneic and bradycardic, indicating the need for more advanced respiratory support. Option B, administering epinephrine, is not the initial step in managing a neonate with respiratory distress. Option C, providing positive-pressure bag-and-mask ventilation, may not be sufficient to adequately ventilate the infant in this critical condition where intubation is required for more effective ventilation and oxygenation. Educationally, this scenario highlights the importance of quick and accurate assessment of neonatal resuscitation needs during delivery. Healthcare providers must be prepared to intervene promptly and appropriately in neonatal emergencies to optimize outcomes and prevent further complications. Understanding the steps in neonatal resuscitation and being able to prioritize interventions based on the infant's presentation are crucial skills for healthcare professionals working in obstetric and neonatal care settings.
Question 5 of 5
The Apgar score is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C) A systematic method to assess the newborn at birth. The Apgar score is a standardized assessment tool developed by Dr. Virginia Apgar in 1952 to quickly evaluate the overall health and well-being of a newborn immediately after birth. It assesses five key indicators: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. This score helps healthcare providers identify any immediate interventions needed to support the newborn's transition to life outside the womb. Option A) A predictor of future development quotients is incorrect because the Apgar score is not designed to predict long-term developmental outcomes. It is a snapshot assessment of the newborn's immediate condition. Option B) A predictor of cerebral palsy is incorrect because while a low Apgar score may indicate potential issues that could lead to cerebral palsy, it is not a direct predictor of this condition. Option D) A predictor of neonatal survival is incorrect because while a low Apgar score may indicate the need for immediate medical intervention to support neonatal survival, it is not a definitive predictor of survival outcomes. Understanding the importance of the Apgar score and how to interpret its findings is crucial for healthcare providers working in neonatal care settings. It helps them make timely decisions to ensure the best outcomes for newborns in those critical first moments of life.