The BEST rationale for the conduct of the program is which of the following?

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Question 1 of 9

The BEST rationale for the conduct of the program is which of the following?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The BEST rationale for the conduct of the program is to deliver safe and quality nursing care to patients on intravenous therapy (IV). This directly ties the purpose of the program to the real-world outcome it seeks to achieve - providing optimal care for patients requiring intravenous therapy. Ensuring safe practice in the hospital (Option A) is important but it is not specific to the focus of the IV therapy program. Improving nursing practice in general (Option B) is a noble goal but the program should have a specific and targeted objective. Providing knowledge and skills to all nursing staff in IV Therapy (Option C) is essential, but the primary aim should be centered on improving patient care outcomes. Therefore, delivering safe and quality nursing care to patients on IV therapy aligns most closely with the core purpose of the program and should be the primary rationale.

Question 2 of 9

A postpartum client who delivered vaginally expresses concern about feeling "heavy" in the perineal area. What education should the nurse provide to address this sensation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The sensation of feeling "heavy" in the perineal area postpartum is a common concern due to the stretching and potential trauma to the perineal muscles during childbirth. Kegel exercises are specifically designed to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which can help alleviate this sensation of heaviness. By encouraging the client to perform Kegel exercises regularly, the nurse is promoting the restoration and strengthening of the perineal muscles, ultimately helping the client feel more comfortable and supported in that area. This education empowers the client to take an active role in their own recovery and promotes optimal healing postpartum.

Question 3 of 9

A patient presents with redness, pain, and photophobia in the left eye. Slit-lamp examination reveals ciliary injection, corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with fixed reaction to light. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation described in the question is characteristic of anterior uveitis. Anterior uveitis is inflammation of the iris and ciliary body in the eye. Patients typically present with symptoms such as redness, pain, and photophobia. Slit-lamp examination findings include ciliary injection (redness and engorgement of blood vessels in the ciliary body), corneal edema (swelling of the cornea), and a mid-dilated pupil with a fixed reaction to light due to involvement of the iris muscles. These features differentiate anterior uveitis from other conditions. Treatment of anterior uveitis may involve topical steroids and cycloplegics to reduce inflammation and alleviate symptoms.

Question 4 of 9

Nurse Adalynn discusses the possibilities of future postpartum hemorrhage with the patients. Which of the following increases the absorption of vitamin K?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Fats are essential for the absorption of vitamin K in the body. Vitamin K is a fat-soluble vitamin, meaning it is better absorbed in the presence of dietary fats. In the case of postpartum hemorrhage, adequate levels of vitamin K are crucial for proper blood clotting. Thus, incorporating fats in the diet can help ensure sufficient absorption of vitamin K, which can be beneficial in preventing complications related to hemorrhage.

Question 5 of 9

A patient with advanced dementia is bedbound and at risk of developing pressure ulcers. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to prevent pressure ulcer formation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most effective intervention to prevent pressure ulcers in bedbound patients at risk, such as those with advanced dementia, is to use pressure-relieving support surfaces like specialized mattresses or cushions. These surfaces help distribute the pressure evenly, reducing the risk of pressure ulcer formation on bony prominences. Turning the patient every 2 hours (choice A) can also help relieve pressure, but it may not be sufficient to prevent pressure ulcers in high-risk individuals. Applying barrier creams or moisture barriers (choice B) can help protect the skin but may not address the underlying issue of pressure on vulnerable areas. Administering prophylactic antibiotics (choice D) is not recommended for preventing pressure ulcers as it does not address the root cause of the problem and can lead to antibiotic resistance. Therefore, the priority intervention should be to use pressure-relieving support surfaces to minimize the risk of pressure ulcers in

Question 6 of 9

A patient asks the nurse about alternative treatment options for their condition. What is the nurse's best response?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's best response when a patient asks about alternative treatment options is to provide the patient with information about those options, including their benefits and risks. It is important for the nurse to support the patient in their exploration of different treatment approaches and empower them to make informed decisions about their care. Dismissing the question, ignoring it, or discouraging alternative treatments are not appropriate responses and may hinder the patient's ability to make choices that align with their values and preferences. Therefore, providing information and facilitating an open discussion about alternative treatments is the most appropriate approach for the patient's best interest.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following organisms is the MOST common causative agent of urinary tract infection (UTI)?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Escherichia coli (E. coli) is the MOST common causative agent of urinary tract infection (UTI), accounting for approximately 80-85% of all cases. E. coli is a type of bacteria that naturally resides in the gastrointestinal tract and can easily migrate to the urinary tract, causing infection. Its prevalence in UTIs is due to various factors such as its ability to adhere to the uroepithelial cells and form biofilms, leading to persistent infections. Therefore, E. coli is the most common organism responsible for UTIs in both community and healthcare settings.

Question 8 of 9

A nurse is preparing to assist with a cardiopulmonary exercise stress test for a patient. What action should the nurse prioritize to ensure patient safety during the test?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The most critical action to prioritize for ensuring patient safety during a cardiopulmonary exercise stress test is to monitor the patient's electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm continuously during the test (Option B). This monitoring allows the healthcare team to promptly detect any abnormal heart rhythms or signs of cardiac distress, enabling timely intervention if necessary. Continuous ECG monitoring is essential during exercise testing as it helps in assessing the heart's response to physical activity and identifying any potential cardiac abnormalities or complications that may arise during the test. By closely monitoring the ECG rhythm, the nurse can ensure the patient's safety and well-being throughout the procedure. Administering a beta-blocker medication before the test (Option A) may be indicated in some cases but is not as crucial as continuous ECG monitoring during the test. Encouraging the patient to consume a heavy meal before the test (Option C) is contraindicated as it can interfere with the accuracy of the results

Question 9 of 9

In caring for this patient suffering from anorexia nervous, which task can be delegated to the nursing assistant?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Task A, obtaining special food for the patient when she requests it, can be delegated to the nursing assistant. This task involves simple assistance with gathering food items and does not require specific medical knowledge or interventions. Tasks B, C, and D involve more direct patient care and assessment, which should be performed by the nursing staff who have the necessary training and expertise to address the complexities of anorexia nervosa.

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