The best diagnostic test for anaphylaxis in a child exposed to an allergen 3 hours before arrival to hospital is

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Question 1 of 5

The best diagnostic test for anaphylaxis in a child exposed to an allergen 3 hours before arrival to hospital is

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) plasma tryptase. Plasma tryptase is the best diagnostic test for anaphylaxis in a child due to its specificity and sensitivity in detecting mast cell activation, which is a key feature of anaphylaxis. Tryptase levels rise early during an anaphylactic reaction and can remain elevated for several hours, making it a reliable marker to confirm the diagnosis. Option A) plasma histamine is not as specific for anaphylaxis as tryptase. Histamine levels can be affected by various factors and may not always correlate with the severity of an allergic reaction. Option B) skin tests are used to identify specific allergens triggering allergic reactions, but they are not diagnostic for anaphylaxis itself. Option C) radioallergosorbent assay (RAST) is a blood test that measures the amount of specific IgE antibodies to particular allergens. While useful for identifying triggers for allergic reactions, it is not specific for diagnosing anaphylaxis. In an educational context, understanding the most appropriate diagnostic tests for anaphylaxis is crucial for pediatric nurses to provide prompt and accurate care to children experiencing severe allergic reactions. Knowledge of specific markers like plasma tryptase can guide clinical decision-making and help in initiating timely interventions to manage anaphylaxis effectively.

Question 2 of 5

One of the following drug-induced allergic claims is not included as an indictment of allopurinol

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Allopurinol is a medication commonly used to treat gout and high levels of uric acid in the blood. It is known to cause allergic reactions in some individuals. In this case, the correct answer is D) pulmonary fibrosis, as this condition is not typically associated with allopurinol use. Option A) exanthem, B) Stevens-Johnson syndrome, and C) toxic epidermal necrolysis are all known potential allergic reactions to allopurinol. Exanthem refers to a widespread rash, while Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis are severe skin conditions that can be life-threatening. In an educational context, it is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially pediatric nurses, to be aware of potential adverse reactions to medications commonly used in children. Understanding the possible allergic reactions to allopurinol can help nurses in monitoring and managing pediatric patients who are prescribed this medication. By knowing which reactions are associated with allopurinol use, nurses can provide safe and effective care to their young patients.

Question 3 of 5

Extreme eosinophilia suggests

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, recognizing signs and symptoms of various conditions is crucial for providing effective care. Extreme eosinophilia, which refers to an abnormally high level of eosinophils in the blood, suggests a drug reaction. Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell involved in allergic reactions. When a medication triggers an immune response, it can result in extreme eosinophilia as the body tries to fight off the perceived threat. Option A, a drug reaction, is the correct answer because medications can elicit immune responses leading to extreme eosinophilia. Options B, C, and D, which are allergic rhinitis, atopic dermatitis, and asthma, respectively, are conditions associated with allergic responses but not specifically linked to extreme eosinophilia caused by drug reactions. In an educational context, understanding the significance of extreme eosinophilia can help healthcare providers identify potential adverse drug reactions in pediatric patients. It underscores the importance of thorough patient assessments, monitoring for unusual laboratory findings, and considering the possibility of medication-related complications in clinical practice. By mastering this concept, nurses can enhance their clinical judgment and provide safer care to pediatric patients.

Question 4 of 5

A child with intermittent asthma has asthma symptoms less than

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the frequency of asthma symptoms is crucial for effective management. The correct answer is A) two times per week for a child with intermittent asthma. This classification means the child experiences symptoms less than two times a week, nighttime awakenings due to asthma less than two times a month, and does not have any interference with normal activities. Option B) three times per week would indicate mild persistent asthma, which requires different management strategies compared to intermittent asthma. Option C) four times per week would fall under moderate persistent asthma, while option D) five times per week would be classified as severe persistent asthma. Educationally, knowing these classifications helps nurses and healthcare providers assess the severity of asthma, determine appropriate treatment plans, and educate families on how to manage their child's condition effectively. Understanding these distinctions is vital in providing quality care and improving outcomes for pediatric patients with asthma.

Question 5 of 5

The MOST common reported adverse effect of first-generation antihistamines is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) sedation. First-generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine, commonly cause sedation due to their ability to cross the blood-brain barrier and exert central nervous system effects. This sedative effect is a well-known adverse reaction associated with these medications. Option B) blurred vision is not the most common adverse effect of first-generation antihistamines. While these medications can cause blurred vision, it is not as prevalent as sedation. Option C) urinary retention is not a commonly reported adverse effect of first-generation antihistamines. Anticholinergic effects, such as urinary retention, are more commonly associated with medications like anticholinergics used to treat overactive bladder. Option D) dry mouth is another common adverse effect of first-generation antihistamines; however, it is not the MOST common reported adverse effect. Dry mouth is a result of the anticholinergic properties of these medications. In an educational context, understanding the common adverse effects of medications is crucial for healthcare providers, especially in pediatric nursing where dosage and side effect management are critical. Knowing that sedation is the most common adverse effect of first-generation antihistamines can help nurses anticipate and manage this side effect in pediatric patients to ensure their safety and well-being.

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