ATI RN
foundations in microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The bacterium Yersinia pestis is responsible for causing what disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Plague. Yersinia pestis is the bacterium responsible for causing the bubonic, septicemic, and pneumonic plague. The bacterium is transmitted to humans through infected flea bites or handling infected animals. Tonsillitis (A) is commonly caused by streptococcal bacteria, leprosy (B) is caused by Mycobacterium leprae, and rat fever (D) is another term for leptospirosis, caused by Leptospira bacteria.
Question 2 of 9
Erysipelas is a bacterial infection characterised by well-defined areas of bright-red, inflamed and rough or leathery skin. Which one is the causative agent:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for Choice C (Streptococcus pyogenes) being the correct answer: 1. Erysipelas is a skin infection characterized by well-defined red, inflamed skin areas. 2. Streptococcus pyogenes is a common causative agent of erysipelas. 3. This bacterium produces enzymes that break down skin proteins, leading to the characteristic symptoms of erysipelas. 4. Streptococcus pyogenes is known for causing skin infections, including erysipelas. Summary of why the other choices are incorrect: A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa: Typically causes opportunistic infections, but not commonly associated with erysipelas. B. Staphylococcus aureus: Can cause skin infections, but not typically associated with erysipelas. D. Candida albicans: Fungal infection, not a bacterium, and not known to cause erysipelas.
Question 3 of 9
How is viral multiplication detected in cell culture?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because viral multiplication in cell culture can be detected by observing a specific cytopathic effect (A) caused by viral infection in cells and by using an immunofluorescence detection method (B) to visualize viral antigens within the cells. Choice C, the characteristic type of viral colonies, is incorrect as viral multiplication is not typically detected by observing viral colonies in cell culture. Option D is the correct choice as both A and B methods are commonly used to detect viral multiplication in cell culture.
Question 4 of 9
A 6-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician by his mother, who complains of low-grade fever, chronic cough and night sweats in her child. She describes the cough as productive, producing white sputum that is sometimes streaked with blood. She also says that her son has lost some weight in the last month. His vital signs include blood pressure of 115/75 mm Hg, heart rate of 110/min., respiratory rate of 18/min. and temperature of 36,6°C. On physical examination, the patient is ill looking. Pulmonary auscultation reveals some fine crackles in the right upper lobe. The pediatrician suspects an active infection and performs Mantoux test. Intradermal injection of which of the following substances has been most likely used by pediatrician for screening test in this clinical case?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tuberculin. In this clinical scenario, the patient presents with symptoms suggestive of tuberculosis, including chronic cough, night sweats, weight loss, and hemoptysis. The Mantoux test, also known as the tuberculin skin test, is used to screen for tuberculosis. Tuberculin, a purified protein derivative (PPD) derived from Mycobacterium tuberculosis, is injected intradermally. The test elicits a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction in individuals who have been exposed to the organism in the past. A positive Mantoux test indicates exposure to tuberculosis and does not differentiate between active infection and prior exposure. Explanation for other choices: B: Measles - Measles is a viral infection that presents with a characteristic rash and fever, not consistent with the symptoms described in the case. C: Tetanus and diphtheria toxoids vaccine (Td) - Td vaccine is not used for tuberculosis screening and does not elicit
Question 5 of 9
A defined microorganism can be isolated in pure culture:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because isolating a defined microorganism in pure culture involves obtaining a single, distinct colony on solid media. This ensures that only one type of microorganism is present in the culture, preventing contamination. Liquid media can harbor multiple organisms, making it challenging to isolate a specific microorganism. Therefore, choice A is incorrect. Choice B is also incorrect as liquid nutrient media does not provide the necessary isolation required for pure culture. Choice D is incorrect because isolating from single colonies on solid media allows for the pure culture of the defined microorganism.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with a productive cough and fever had a sputum smear revealing Gram-positive cocci in clusters. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci bacterium that forms clusters and commonly causes pneumonia with a productive cough and fever. It is frequently found in sputum smears in such cases. Streptococcus pneumoniae (B) is another common cause of pneumonia but typically appears in pairs or chains, not clusters. Neisseria meningitidis (C) is a Gram-negative diplococcus that causes meningitis, not pneumonia. Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) is a Gram-negative bacterium that can cause pneumonia but appears as Gram-negative rods, not Gram-positive cocci in clusters.
Question 7 of 9
Allergy to penicillin is an example of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice A being correct: 1. Penicillin allergy involves IgE antibodies binding to penicillin. 2. This triggers mast cell degranulation, releasing histamine. 3. Histamine causes allergic symptoms like rash, swelling. 4. This immune response characterizes Type I hypersensitivity reactions. Summary of other choices: B: Type II reactions involve antibody-mediated cell destruction, not seen in penicillin allergy. C: Type III reactions involve immune complex deposition, not typical in penicillin allergy. D: Type IV reactions are delayed hypersensitivity reactions, not immediate like penicillin allergy.
Question 8 of 9
Which one is not true for the adaptive immunity:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because adaptive immunity is not mainly observed in the skin and mucous membranes. Adaptive immunity is a systemic response that involves specific immune cells and antibodies targeting specific pathogens. It develops immune memory (B), meaning it can recognize and respond faster upon re-exposure to the same pathogen. Adaptive immunity also has specificity (C), as it can target specific antigens. Lastly, adaptive immunity is not evolutionarily newer in comparison to innate immunity (D), as both systems have co-evolved to provide comprehensive protection against pathogens.
Question 9 of 9
A patient who came to the doctor because of his infertility was administered to make tests for toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhoea. Which reaction should be performed to reveal latent toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhoea in this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: IFA - Immunofluorescence assay. Toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhea can be detected using serological tests like IFA. IFA detects specific antibodies in the patient's serum by using fluorescently labeled antibodies. This method is highly sensitive and specific for detecting both acute and latent infections. Explanation of Incorrect Choices: A: RIHA - Reverse indirect hemagglutination assay - This test is not commonly used for detecting toxoplasmosis or chronic gonorrhea. B: RDHA - Reverse direct hemagglutination assay - This test is not typically used for these specific infections. D: Immunoblot analysis - While Immunoblot analysis is a useful confirmatory test for certain infections, it is not the primary method for detecting toxoplasmosis or chronic gonorrhea.