Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monoclonal antibodies to anthrax causative agent. Monoclonal antibodies are highly specific for detecting anthrax spores, providing quick and accurate results. They bind only to the anthrax causative agent, allowing for precise identification. Choice A (Anti-anthrax fluorescent serum) is incorrect because it is not as specific and sensitive as monoclonal antibodies. Choice B (Standard anthrax antigen) is incorrect as it is used to stimulate antibody production in the body, not for direct detection of spores. Choice C (Anti-anthrax immunoglobulin) is incorrect as it is a general term for antibodies and may not be specific to anthrax spores. In summary, monoclonal antibodies are the most suitable option for quick and accurate detection of anthrax spores due to their high specificity and sensitivity.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Delayed hypersensitivity reaction. In granuloma development in tuberculosis, macrophages present antigen to T cells, leading to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction. This triggers the recruitment of more macrophages and formation of granulomas. Antibody-dependent cytotoxicity (B) and complement-dependent cytotoxicity (C) involve antibodies and complement proteins in immediate hypersensitivity reactions, which are not the primary mechanisms in tuberculosis. Anaphylactic reaction (D) is an acute systemic allergic reaction mediated by IgE antibodies, not relevant to granuloma formation in tuberculosis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B (Tuberculin is introduced) is correct: 1. Tuberculin test helps identify individuals with latent TB infection. 2. Negative skin-allergic samples suggest absence of active TB. 3. Introducing tuberculin can help confirm latent TB infection. 4. Antibiotics are not prescribed for negative skin-allergic samples. 5. Vaccines are not administered for TB diagnosis. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect as antibiotics are not prescribed for negative skin-allergic samples. - Choice C is incorrect as vaccines are not used for TB diagnosis. - Choice D is incorrect as introducing tuberculin is the appropriate step in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. Step 1: Gram-negative diplococci - characteristic of Neisseria species. Step 2: Oxidase-positive - Neisseria species are oxidase-positive. Step 3: Fermentative - Neisseria meningitidis is a fermentative bacterium. Therefore, Neisseria meningitidis is the most likely causative agent. Summary: - B: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is also a Neisseria species but is not fermentative. - C: Moraxella catarrhalis is oxidase-positive but not fermentative. - D: Haemophilus influenzae is not a Neisseria species and is not typically fermentative.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased active efflux from the bacterial cell. This is the most important mechanism of tetracycline resistance because it involves the bacteria actively pumping out the antibiotic, reducing its intracellular concentration. This prevents tetracycline from effectively targeting bacterial ribosomes. Choice A is incorrect as tetracycline resistance typically involves active efflux rather than reduced influx. Choice B is incorrect because tetracycline resistance mechanisms do not primarily involve altered cell membrane components affecting passive influx. Choice D is also incorrect as tetracycline resistance mechanisms do not typically involve direct enzymatic inactivation of the antibiotic.