ATI RN
Microbiology Basic and Clinical Principles Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The bacteriological laboratory needs to prepare for analysis of materials that are suspected to be contaminated with spores of anthrax causative agent. What diagnostic preparation allows for quick detection of these spores?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monoclonal antibodies to anthrax causative agent. Monoclonal antibodies are highly specific for detecting anthrax spores, providing quick and accurate results. They bind only to the anthrax causative agent, allowing for precise identification. Choice A (Anti-anthrax fluorescent serum) is incorrect because it is not as specific and sensitive as monoclonal antibodies. Choice B (Standard anthrax antigen) is incorrect as it is used to stimulate antibody production in the body, not for direct detection of spores. Choice C (Anti-anthrax immunoglobulin) is incorrect as it is a general term for antibodies and may not be specific to anthrax spores. In summary, monoclonal antibodies are the most suitable option for quick and accurate detection of anthrax spores due to their high specificity and sensitivity.
Question 2 of 9
The fluidlike portion of a cell is referred to as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: cytoplasmic membrane. The cytoplasmic membrane is the fluidlike portion of a cell that separates the cell's contents from the external environment. It regulates the passage of substances in and out of the cell, maintains cell shape, and provides protection. Rationale: 1. Cytosol (choice A) is the liquid component of the cytoplasm where organelles are suspended, not the fluidlike portion of the cell. 2. Nucleoplasm (choice B) refers to the liquid component of the nucleus, not the entire cell. 3. Inclusion (choice D) refers to non-living substances within the cell that are not considered the fluidlike portion. Summary: The cytoplasmic membrane is the correct answer as it encompasses the entire cell and is responsible for maintaining cell integrity and regulating transport. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the fluidlike portion of the cell.
Question 3 of 9
A 38-year-old male complains of tonic tension of the masticatory muscles, so that he cannot open his mouth. 12 days before, he was bitten by an unknown dog. Objectively: there is pronounced tension and twitching of the masticatory muscles. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tetanus. The symptoms of tonic tension of the masticatory muscles following a dog bite are indicative of tetanus, caused by the bacterium Clostridium tetani. The incubation period of tetanus is usually 3-21 days, consistent with the patient's history of being bitten 12 days ago. Tetanus toxin causes muscle stiffness and spasms, leading to the inability to open the mouth. Rabies (B) presents with hydrophobia and neurological symptoms. Hysteria (C) is a psychological condition. Trigeminal neuralgia (D) is characterized by severe facial pain, not muscle stiffness.
Question 4 of 9
Treponema pallidum and Borrelia burgdorferi belong to the group of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Treponema pallidum and Borrelia burgdorferi are both spirochetes. 2. Spirochetes are characterized by their spiral shape and unique motility. 3. Both organisms exhibit corkscrew-like movement due to axial filaments. 4. Other choices are incorrect as Treponema and Borrelia are not gram-negative rods, cocci, or anaerobic cocci. Summary: The correct answer is D because Treponema pallidum and Borrelia burgdorferi are spirochetes, characterized by their spiral shape and motility. Other choices are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the characteristics of these organisms.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with a sore throat and fever had a throat culture revealing Gram-positive cocci in chains. The bacteria were beta-hemolytic. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. 1. Gram-positive cocci in chains suggest streptococci. 2. Beta-hemolytic activity indicates Streptococcus pyogenes. 3. Streptococcus pyogenes is commonly associated with sore throat (pharyngitis) and fever. 4. Streptococcus pneumoniae (choice B) is alpha-hemolytic and mainly causes pneumonia. 5. Enterococcus faecalis (choice C) is not typically associated with sore throat. 6. Staphylococcus aureus (choice D) is not commonly beta-hemolytic and is not a typical cause of pharyngitis.
Question 6 of 9
A blood culture from a patient with sepsis revealed Gram-negative diplococci. The organism was oxidase-positive and fermentative. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neisseria meningitidis. This is because Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococci that is oxidase-positive and fermentative. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (choice A) is also a Gram-negative diplococci but is not fermentative. Haemophilus influenzae (choice C) is not a diplococci and Moraxella catarrhalis (choice D) is oxidase-negative. Thus, Neisseria meningitidis fits all the criteria provided in the question, making it the most likely causative agent for the sepsis in this patient.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following is commonly referred to as a pinworm?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: protozoans. Pinworms are commonly referred to as Enterobius vermicularis, which are parasitic worms belonging to the phylum Nematoda. Protozoans are single-celled organisms, and pinworms are multicellular worms. Algae are photosynthetic organisms, helminths are parasitic worms (which pinworms fall under), and fungi are eukaryotic organisms that include molds and yeasts. Therefore, protozoans are the correct choice for organisms commonly referred to as pinworms.
Question 8 of 9
The cell envelope of Gram-negative bacteria is composed of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because Gram-negative bacteria have a unique cell envelope structure consisting of a cytoplasmic membrane, a peptidoglycan layer, and an outer membrane. The cytoplasmic membrane is the innermost layer that separates the cytoplasm from the external environment. The peptidoglycan layer provides structural support to the cell. The outer membrane acts as an additional protective barrier and contains lipopolysaccharides. Choice B is incorrect because Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane in addition to the cytoplasmic membrane and peptidoglycan layer. Choice C is incorrect because Gram-negative bacteria have more than just a peptidoglycan layer in their cell envelope. Choice D is incorrect as the cell envelope of Gram-negative bacteria does have specific components.
Question 9 of 9
The organism that is responsible for the vast majority of cases of fungal vaginitis is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Propionibacterium acnes. This bacterium is not a fungus, but a common skin bacteria. Fungal vaginitis is typically caused by Candida albicans or other fungal species, not by bacteria like Escherichia coli, Streptococcus agalactiae, or Klebsiella oxytoca. Propionibacterium acnes is not associated with vaginal infections, making it the correct answer in this context.