ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The baby dies immediately after birth due to the presence of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Truncus arteriosus. In this congenital heart defect, a single large blood vessel arises from the heart instead of the normal two separate vessels (aorta and pulmonary artery). This results in mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, leading to severe cyanosis and inadequate oxygen supply to the body. This condition is incompatible with life, causing immediate death after birth. A: Pulmonary stenosis and B: Aortic coarctation are also congenital heart defects but do not typically result in immediate death after birth. Pulmonary stenosis obstructs blood flow to the lungs, while aortic coarctation causes narrowing of the aorta. D: Ductus arteriosus is a normal fetal blood vessel that connects the pulmonary artery and the aorta but usually closes shortly after birth. Failure of closure can lead to health issues, but it is not typically a cause of immediate death after birth.
Question 2 of 9
Placental parasitation is associated with
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Placental parasitation is associated with Malaria prenatally because the Plasmodium parasite can infect the placenta through the bloodstream, leading to severe complications for both the mother and the fetus. This infection can result in low birth weight, preterm birth, and even stillbirth. Candidiasis, Tuberculosis, and Multiple gestation are not directly associated with placental parasitation. Candidiasis is a fungal infection, Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection, and Multiple gestation refers to carrying more than one fetus during pregnancy. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Malaria prenatally, due to the direct impact of Plasmodium parasite on the placenta and its implications on pregnancy outcomes.
Question 3 of 9
Congenital retraction of the prepuce, so that the glans is permanently exposed, is known as
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Congenital retraction of the prepuce, leading to permanent glans exposure, describes paraphimosis. This condition occurs when the foreskin is pulled back and cannot return to its normal position, causing pain and swelling. Phimosis (A) is the inability to retract the foreskin over the glans. Hypospadias (C) is a urethral opening on the underside of the penis. Hermaphroditism (D) is a rare condition of having both male and female reproductive organs. Paraphimosis (B) is the specific term for the given scenario.
Question 4 of 9
The Brain Trauma Foundation recommends intracranial pressure monitoring for all of the following patients except those with
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the Brain Trauma Foundation recommends intracranial pressure monitoring for patients with traumatic brain injury and a GCS of 3 to 8, regardless of the head CT findings. Intracranial pressure monitoring helps in the management of elevated intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening. Abnormal head CT findings may indicate the need for immediate intervention, but intracranial pressure monitoring is still recommended for all patients in this GCS range to guide treatment decisions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypotension, age > 40 years old, and bradycardia are not factors that would exclude a patient from needing intracranial pressure monitoring in the presence of a GCS of 3 to 8.
Question 5 of 9
Diagnosis of occipito-posterior position:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. External examination can reveal the position of the baby's head. 2. Ultrasound can confirm the baby's position accurately. 3. Physical exam and pelvic exam findings can provide additional information. 4. Combining both methods (A and B) ensures a comprehensive assessment for accurate diagnosis. Summary: - Choice A alone may not provide sufficient information. - Choice B alone may not be as accurate as combined with ultrasound. - Choice C is not specific to diagnosing occipito-posterior position. - Choice D is correct as it combines external examination, ultrasound, and physical exam for accurate diagnosis.
Question 6 of 9
Productive cough, dyspnoea at rest, and generalized oedema are among the features of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Very severe anaemia. Productive cough, dyspnoea at rest, and generalized oedema are classic symptoms of very severe anaemia due to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Anemia leads to tissue hypoxia, causing shortness of breath and fluid retention. Folate deficiency (A) typically presents with megaloblastic anemia, not generalized edema. Mild iron deficiency (C) may lead to fatigue and weakness but not the severe symptoms described. Severe anemia (D) is too broad; very severe anemia specifically refers to the severity of the condition.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following is not a true statement with respect to decision making for a cognitively impaired patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because living wills are typically not honored for terminally ill patients with impaired cognition. Firstly, living wills require the patient to be of sound mind to make decisions. Secondly, in the case of a cognitively impaired patient, their ability to express their wishes and understand the implications may be compromised. Therefore, healthcare providers may not be able to honor the living will accurately. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because A) competency can be determined by healthcare professionals, B) impaired cognition can lead to incompetence, and D) informed consent requires the patient to understand the decision-making process.
Question 8 of 9
What is a common cause of oligohydramnios during pregnancy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Premature rupture of membranes. Oligohydramnios is a condition characterized by low levels of amniotic fluid which can be caused by the premature rupture of membranes, leading to the leakage of amniotic fluid. This condition can result in various complications such as fetal growth restriction and compression of the umbilical cord. Maternal hypertension (choice A) is not a direct cause of oligohydramnios. Multiple gestations (choice B) may lead to polyhydramnios (excessive amniotic fluid) rather than oligohydramnios. Fetal macrosomia (choice D) is associated with increased amniotic fluid levels rather than decreased levels seen in oligohydramnios.
Question 9 of 9
Justin F. is seen in the emergency department with an 8-cm jagged laceration on the dorsal surface of his right forearm. He says he was working with his brother-in-law yesterday morning building a deck on the back of his home. A pile of wooden planks fell on top of him, and he sustained a variety of cuts and superficial injuries. He cleaned the wound with soap and water but didnt want to go to the emergency room because he didnt want to risk being in the waiting room for hours. He wrapped up his arm and went back to work, and then took a normal shower and went to bed last night. This morning the cut on his arm was still flapping open, and he realized he needed sutures. The appropriate management of this patient includes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Local anesthesia, cleansing, and suture repair. 1. Local anesthesia is needed to numb the area before suturing. 2. Cleansing is necessary to prevent infection and remove debris. 3. Suture repair is required for a jagged laceration to promote proper wound healing and minimize scarring. Other choices are incorrect: A: Antibiotic therapy is not indicated for clean, non-infected wounds like this laceration. B: Wound exploration for foreign bodies is not necessary in this case as the mechanism of injury is known and there is no indication of foreign bodies. D: Tetanus prophylaxis is important but not directly related to the immediate management of the laceration.