ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The baby dies immediately after birth due to the presence of
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Truncus arteriosus. In this congenital heart defect, a single large blood vessel arises from the heart instead of the normal two separate vessels (aorta and pulmonary artery). This results in mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, leading to severe cyanosis and inadequate oxygen supply to the body. This condition is incompatible with life, causing immediate death after birth. A: Pulmonary stenosis and B: Aortic coarctation are also congenital heart defects but do not typically result in immediate death after birth. Pulmonary stenosis obstructs blood flow to the lungs, while aortic coarctation causes narrowing of the aorta. D: Ductus arteriosus is a normal fetal blood vessel that connects the pulmonary artery and the aorta but usually closes shortly after birth. Failure of closure can lead to health issues, but it is not typically a cause of immediate death after birth.
Question 2 of 9
The MAIN aim of encouraging plenty of fluids to a postnatal client with urinary tract trauma is to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Keep client well hydrated. Encouraging plenty of fluids helps prevent dehydration, maintain adequate urine output, and promote flushing of the urinary tract to prevent infections, all crucial for postnatal clients with urinary tract trauma. Proper hydration also supports overall health and aids in the healing process. B: Maintain proper fluid balance - While important, the main aim is to keep the client well hydrated to support healing. C: Facilitate proper healing - Proper hydration does facilitate healing, but the primary aim is to keep the client well hydrated. D: Control growth of organisms - While hydration can help in preventing infections, the main aim is to keep the client well hydrated.
Question 3 of 9
When examining a patient with abdominal pain, the AGACNP knows that tenderness to percussion is analogous to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tympany. Tenderness to percussion is analogous to tympany as both indicate the presence of gas-filled structures. When a patient experiences tenderness to percussion in the abdomen, it suggests that there is gas or air present in the abdomen, leading to a hollow, drum-like sound upon percussion, which is characteristic of tympany. Guarding (B) is the involuntary contraction of abdominal muscles to protect the underlying organs, not related to percussion. Rebound tenderness (C) is the pain experienced when pressure is released during palpation, not percussion. Somatic pain (D) refers to pain originating from the skin, muscles, or bones, not related to percussion findings.
Question 4 of 9
A client is declared fit for a vaginal birth after cesarean section if
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client is declared fit for a vaginal birth after cesarean section if their previous delivery was via spontaneous vertex delivery. This indicates that the client has successfully given birth vaginally before, reducing the risk associated with a vaginal birth after cesarean section. A, B, and C are incorrect: A: Cephalopelvic disproportion was the reason for the previous C/S, indicating potential difficulty in vaginal delivery. B: Confirmation of a multiple pregnancy does not impact the client's eligibility for a vaginal birth after cesarean section. C: Previous cesarean section does not necessarily mean the client is fit for a vaginal birth after cesarean section.
Question 5 of 9
In breech delivery, the midwife is advised to keep her hands off the breech as it progressively descends so as to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prevent excessive traction being applied. This is because in a breech delivery, excessive traction can lead to complications such as fetal injuries or umbilical cord prolapse. The midwife should avoid pulling on the baby's legs or body to prevent undue stress on the baby. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Ascertain the fetal wellbeing in utero - this is typically done through other means such as fetal monitoring. B: Allow enough room for the fetus to pass - this should be done by ensuring proper positioning and allowing natural descent. C: Allow gravitating descent of the fetus - this is not a recommended practice as it can cause complications.
Question 6 of 9
The main feature in the initial stage of shock is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. In the initial stage of shock, the body tries to compensate for decreased perfusion by increasing heart rate to maintain blood flow to vital organs. Cyanosis (A) is a late sign of shock due to inadequate oxygenation. Sweat beads (C) are a non-specific response and not a defining feature of shock. Hypotension (D) typically occurs in the later stages of shock as the body's compensatory mechanisms start to fail. Tachycardia is the earliest and most consistent sign of shock, reflecting the body's attempt to maintain cardiac output.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following is NOT a source of pain in labour?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Uterine contractions are a physiological process in labor causing pain due to muscle contractions. Step 2: Cervical dilatation involves the opening of the cervix, which can cause pain and discomfort. Step 3: Pelvic floor stretching occurs as the baby moves through the birth canal, leading to pain. Step 4: Socio-cultural norms do not directly cause physical pain in labor, making choice B the correct answer. Other choices directly relate to physical processes causing pain.
Question 8 of 9
Mr. Costigan is a 50-year-old male patient who recently had a screening colonoscopy because it was recommended by his primary care provider as a screening measure. He received a report that noted inflammatory polyps. He is concerned because one of his friends had polyps that turned into cancer. While advising Mr. Costigan, the AGACNP tells him that
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Family history of colon cancer is a significant risk factor for developing colon cancer. Step 2: By discussing with his parents, Mr. Costigan can determine if there is a family history of colon cancer. Step 3: Knowing this information can help assess his own risk and guide appropriate screening and preventive measures. Step 4: The primary danger for Mr. Costigan lies in potential genetic predisposition rather than the presence of inflammatory polyps. Step 5: Therefore, discussing with family members about any history of colon cancer is crucial for his overall risk assessment and management. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect as the frequency of colonoscopy should be individualized based on the patient's risk factors. - Choice C is incorrect as all polyps have the potential to become cancerous, especially inflammatory polyps. - Choice D is incorrect as consulting an oncologist at this stage is premature without first assessing family history.
Question 9 of 9
Sara S. is a 41-year-old patient who has just had a bone marrow transplant. The AGACNP knows that which medication will be used to decrease her risk of graft-versus-host reaction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immune globulin. Post bone marrow transplant, immune globulin is used to decrease the risk of graft-versus-host reaction by providing passive immunity. This helps in reducing the chances of the donor's immune cells attacking the recipient's tissues. Immune globulin does not suppress the immune system like cyclosporine (B) or systemic corticosteroids (D) do, which could increase the risk of infections post-transplant. Prophylactic antibiotics (C) are used to prevent infections but do not specifically target graft-versus-host reaction.