ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The assessment of pain and anxiety is a continuous proces s. When critically ill patients exhibit signs of anxiety, what is the nurse’s first priority?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: To identify and treat the underlying cause. The first priority of the nurse when critically ill patients exhibit signs of anxiety is to determine the root cause of the anxiety. By identifying and addressing the underlying cause, the nurse can effectively manage the patient's anxiety and prevent further complications. Administering medications without understanding the cause can mask the symptoms and lead to ineffective treatment. Reassessing the patient hourly may not address the root cause and could delay appropriate intervention. Pain medication may not be necessary if the anxiety is not related to pain. Treating the underlying cause ensures holistic and effective care for the patient.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse uses the Situation-Background-Assessment-Recommendation (SBAR) format to communicate a change in patient status to a healthcare provider. In which order should the nurse make the following statements?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Start with Background - statement B provides relevant background information about the patient's current condition and why there is a need for communication. Step 2: Move on to Situation - statement D sets the current situation where the nurse expresses concern about the patient's symptom. Step 3: Next is Assessment - statement C details the nurse's assessment findings, highlighting the critical aspects of the patient's condition. Step 4: End with Recommendation - statement A suggests the necessary action to be taken based on the assessment findings. This order ensures a clear and structured communication process. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect as the recommendation should come after providing background, situation, and assessment. - Choice C is incorrect as assessment details should precede the patient's critical condition. - Choice D is incorrect as the situation should be explained before expressing concern.
Question 3 of 5
Identify which substances in the glomerular filtrate would indicate a problem with renal function. (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presence of protein in the glomerular filtrate indicates a problem with renal function because in healthy kidneys, proteins are retained in the blood and not filtered into the urine. If protein is found in the filtrate, it suggests damage to the glomerular filtration barrier. Sodium, creatinine, and red blood cells are normally present in the filtrate and are not indicative of renal dysfunction. Sodium is freely filtered and reabsorbed, creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism excreted by the kidneys, and a small number of red blood cells may be filtered due to their small size. Therefore, protein in the glomerular filtrate is the most specific indicator of renal dysfunction.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who is unable to void. The plan of care establishes an objective for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid between 7:00 am and 3:30 pm. Which client response should the nurse document that indicates a successful outcome?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: The objective is for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid between 7:00 am and 3:30 pm. Step 2: Choice C states that the client drinks 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift, totaling 1200 mL (240 mL x 5) which exceeds the required amount. Step 3: Therefore, choice C is the correct answer as it demonstrates successful achievement of the objective by ensuring the client has ingested enough fluid within the specified time frame. Step 4: Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the specific objective of fluid intake set for the client. Option A focuses on intake and output, option B relates to abdominal comfort, and option D is about voiding, none of which directly address the specified objective of fluid ingestion.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient. T he primary care providers are considering performing a tracheostomy because the patienatb iirsb .hcoamv/itensgt difficulty weaning from mechanical ventilation. Related to tracheostomy, the nurse understands which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Procedures performed in the operating room are associated with fewer complications. This is because performing a tracheostomy in the operating room allows for better control of the environment, equipment, and expertise of the surgical team. In this setting, the risk of complications such as bleeding, infection, and injury to surrounding structures is minimized. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A: Patient outcomes are better if the tracheostomy is done within a week of intubation - This statement is not universally true and depends on individual patient factors. Timing of tracheostomy should be based on the patient's clinical condition and not a set timeline. B: Percutaneous tracheostomy can be done safely at the bedside by the respiratory therapist - While percutaneous tracheostomy can be performed at the bedside, it is typically done by a trained physician or surgeon due to the potential risks and complications involved. D: The greatest risk after a per
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