ATI RN
Pharmacology CNS Drugs Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
The antihypertensive effects of captopril can be antagonized (reduced) by
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is C) NSAIDs. Captopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used as an antihypertensive medication. ACE inhibitors work by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. NSAIDs, such as ibuprofen, can reduce the antihypertensive effects of captopril by causing sodium and water retention, counteracting the diuretic and vasodilatory effects of captopril. Option A) Angiotensin II receptor blockers work through a different mechanism than captopril, so they would not antagonize its effects. Option B) Loop diuretics can actually enhance the antihypertensive effects of captopril by further reducing fluid volume and blood pressure. Option D) Sulfonylurea hypoglycemics are not related to captopril's antihypertensive effects and would not interfere with its mechanism of action. This question is important in pharmacology education as it highlights the potential interactions between medications that can impact treatment outcomes. Understanding how different drug classes can interact helps healthcare providers make informed decisions when managing patients on multiple medications. It also emphasizes the importance of considering potential drug interactions when prescribing medications to avoid compromising therapeutic effectiveness.
Question 2 of 5
Infusion of phentolamine into the cerebrospinal fluid of an experimental animal will prevent the blood pressure-lowering action of
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Clonidine. Phentolamine is an alpha-adrenergic antagonist that blocks alpha receptors. Clonidine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist that acts centrally to reduce sympathetic outflow, ultimately lowering blood pressure. When phentolamine is infused into the cerebrospinal fluid of an experimental animal, it blocks the alpha receptors, thereby preventing the blood pressure-lowering action of clonidine. Now, let's analyze why the other options are incorrect: - B) Enalapril: Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that works by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to vasodilation and reduced blood pressure. It does not directly interact with alpha receptors like clonidine. - C) Guanethidine: Guanethidine is a sympatholytic drug that reduces blood pressure by preventing the release of norepinephrine from sympathetic nerve terminals. It does not directly interact with alpha receptors in the same way as clonidine. - D) Reserpine: Reserpine inhibits the storage of norepinephrine and other neurotransmitters in synaptic vesicles, ultimately reducing sympathetic outflow. However, it does not act on alpha receptors like clonidine does. Educational Context: Understanding how different pharmacological agents interact with specific receptors and pathways in the body is crucial in pharmacology. This question highlights the importance of knowing the mechanisms of action of drugs that affect blood pressure regulation, particularly those that target adrenergic receptors. It also emphasizes the significance of considering how different drugs may interact or interfere with each other's actions when used concurrently or in experimental settings.
Question 3 of 5
A 24-year-old man with a history of partial seizures has been treated with standard anticonvulsants for several years. He is currently taking valproic acid, which is not fully effective, and his neurologist prescribes a new drug. Unfortunately, the patient develops toxic epidermal necrolysis. The new drug prescribed was
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C) Lamotrigine. Lamotrigine is a commonly used anticonvulsant that has shown efficacy in treating partial seizures. It is known to have a lower risk of causing severe skin reactions compared to other anticonvulsants like carbamazepine or phenytoin. Felbamate (A) is associated with a higher risk of causing serious adverse effects, including aplastic anemia and hepatic failure, but not specifically toxic epidermal necrolysis. Gabapentin (B) and Tiagabine (D) are anticonvulsants used to treat seizures but are not typically associated with causing toxic epidermal necrolysis. Educationally, understanding the side effect profiles of different anticonvulsants is crucial for healthcare providers when selecting appropriate medications for patients with seizure disorders. Lamotrigine's lower risk of causing severe skin reactions makes it a favorable choice for individuals who may be predisposed to such reactions, as seen in the case of the patient developing toxic epidermal necrolysis.
Question 4 of 5
The brief duration of action of an ultra-short-acting barbiturate is due to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) Rapid rate of redistribution from the brain due to its high liposolubility. Ultra-short-acting barbiturates, like thiopental, have a high lipid solubility which allows them to quickly enter the brain and induce anesthesia. However, their rapid redistribution from the brain to other tissues with lower blood flow results in their short duration of action. Option A is incorrect because a slow rate of metabolism in the liver would actually prolong the duration of action by allowing more of the drug to remain active in the body for a longer period of time. Option B is incorrect because low lipid solubility would limit the drug's ability to cross the blood-brain barrier and exert its pharmacological effects in the brain, thus not explaining the brief duration of action. Option C is incorrect because a high degree of binding to plasma proteins would affect the distribution of the drug in the bloodstream but not specifically account for the rapid clearance from the brain. Educationally, understanding the pharmacokinetic properties of drugs, such as lipid solubility and distribution, is crucial in pharmacology. This knowledge helps healthcare professionals predict the onset, duration, and intensity of drug effects, enabling them to make informed decisions regarding drug therapy and patient care.
Question 5 of 5
An overdose victim presents to the emergency department with an elevated heart rate, decreased blood pressure, dilated pupils, and lethargy, upon arrival to the ICU, she has a generalized tonic-clonic seizure that is treated with IV diazepam and fosphenytoin. Which of the following is the most likely intoxicant?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Amitriptyline. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that can cause anticholinergic effects, including tachycardia, hypotension, dilated pupils, and central nervous system depression leading to lethargy and seizures. The administration of IV diazepam and fosphenytoin to treat the seizure further supports this as they are commonly used in tricyclic antidepressant overdose. Option B) Methanol typically presents with metabolic acidosis and visual disturbances rather than the symptoms described in the case. Option C) Acetaminophen overdose is associated with liver toxicity and not the constellation of symptoms presented. Option D) Oxycodone overdose would more likely present with respiratory depression and pinpoint pupils, which are not seen in this case. Understanding the signs and symptoms of different drug overdoses is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate and timely interventions. Recognizing the specific manifestations of various intoxicants can guide treatment decisions and improve patient outcomes. By linking theoretical knowledge with practical application in clinical scenarios, learners can enhance their diagnostic skills and decision-making abilities in real-world healthcare settings.