ATI RN
microbiology a systems approach test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The antigen receptors on the surface of B-lymphocytes are made by proteins:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. B-lymphocyte antigen receptors are made by proteins called immunoglobulins. These proteins are essential for recognizing and binding to specific antigens. They play a crucial role in the immune response. Choice B is incorrect because B-lymphocyte antigen receptors are indeed made by proteins. Choice C is incorrect as well because in this case, the correct answer is that the receptors are made by proteins. Choice D is also incorrect as the receptors are made by proteins.
Question 2 of 9
A 49-year-old countryman got an itching papule on the dorsum of his right hand. In the centre there is a vesicle with serosanginous exudate. Within the next 2 days the patient developed a painless edema of hand and forearm. On the 4th day the temperature rose to 38,5oC, in the right axillary region a large painful lymph node was found. One daybefore the onset of the disease the patient had examined a dead calf. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is D: Lymphocutaneous tularemia. The key clues include exposure to a dead animal, vesicle with serosanginous exudate, painless edema progressing to lymph node involvement, and fever. Tularemia is caused by Francisella tularensis, commonly acquired through contact with infected animals. The characteristic ulcer at the site of entry, lymphadenopathy, and systemic symptoms point towards tularemia. Cutaneous anthrax (A) presents with a painless ulcer and black eschar. Bubonic plague (B) typically presents with buboes (swollen lymph nodes) and fever. Carbuncle (C) is a deep skin infection typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
Question 3 of 9
A sputum smear stained by Gram's method revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The patient presented with an abscess. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive bacterium that commonly presents as cocci in clusters. It is a known causative agent of abscesses due to its ability to produce enzymes and toxins that contribute to tissue destruction. In this case, the presence of Gram-positive cocci in clusters aligns with the characteristic morphology of Staphylococcus aureus. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Streptococcus pyogenes is a Gram-positive bacterium that typically presents as cocci in chains, not clusters. It is more commonly associated with pharyngitis and skin infections rather than abscesses. C: Enterococcus faecalis is a Gram-positive bacterium that typically presents as cocci in pairs or short chains, not clusters. It is more commonly associated with urinary tract infections and endocarditis. D: Micrococcus luteus is a Gram-positive bacterium that typically presents as t
Question 4 of 9
Group II category diseases as established by the NIAID include:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: reemerging diseases. Group II category diseases by the NIAID are those that have reemerged or have the potential to reemerge. This classification helps prioritize research and resources. Choice A is incorrect because new foodborne pathogens fall under different categories. Choice B is incorrect as eradicated diseases are not part of the reemerging group. Choice C is incorrect because bioterrorism agents are classified separately. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it aligns with the purpose of Group II category diseases.
Question 5 of 9
Which one is true for enteropathogenic E.coli?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC) have fimbrial adhesins that help them bind to enterocytes in the intestines, leading to colonization and infection. This is a key virulence factor of EPEC. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: B: EPEC typically cause watery diarrhea in infants, not bloody diarrhea similar to shigellosis. C: EPEC are not part of the normal intestinal flora; they are pathogenic bacteria. D: EPEC are not invasive and do not typically produce enterotoxin; they primarily adhere to the intestinal epithelium.
Question 6 of 9
Which structure in bacteria allows them to exchange genetic material during conjugation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pili in bacteria are responsible for conjugation, allowing the transfer of genetic material between cells. They form a bridge between donor and recipient cells, facilitating the exchange of DNA. Flagella are for movement, capsules for protection, and ribosomes for protein synthesis. Pili is the only structure directly involved in genetic material exchange.
Question 7 of 9
The dynamic balance of the species in the normal microflora is known as
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: eubiosis. Eubiosis refers to a state of balance and harmony among the species in the normal microflora. This term signifies a healthy and stable microbial community. Dysbiosis (A) is the opposite, indicating an imbalance or disruption in the microflora. Eukaryota (B) refers to organisms with cells containing a nucleus, not specifically related to the balance of microflora. Dispersion (C) refers to the spreading or distribution of microorganisms, not specifically related to their balance. In summary, eubiosis best describes the dynamic balance of species in the normal microflora, making it the correct choice.
Question 8 of 9
Which statement about the fungal mycelium is correct:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: - A: The mycelium is indeed made up of intertwined hyphae, which are the branching filaments of fungi. - B: Part of the mycelium does grow into the medium to acquire nutrients, forming the substrate mycelium. - C: Some parts of the mycelium remain above the medium to aid in reproduction and spore dispersal, forming the aerial mycelium. Therefore, all statements (A, B, and C) are correct, making choice D the correct answer. The mycelium exhibits both intertwined hyphae, substrate mycelium, and aerial mycelium to facilitate different functions.
Question 9 of 9
Infections of the CNS can be caused by:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three choices, Clostridium botulinum, Morbillivirus morbillorum, and Clostridium tetani, can cause infections of the CNS. Clostridium botulinum can lead to botulism, affecting the nervous system. Morbillivirus morbillorum can cause measles, which can lead to encephalitis. Clostridium tetani can cause tetanus, affecting the central nervous system. Therefore, all three choices can cause infections of the CNS. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually because each pathogen can cause CNS infections.